Question: How could one apply the binomial theorem to prove the following statement? For nN 2 = ( 0 ) ( 1 ) ( 2 )

How could one apply the binomial theorem to prove the following statement? For nN 2 = ( 0 ) ( 1 ) ( 2 ) ( ) 2 n =( 0 n ) ( 1 n ) ( 2 n ) ( n n ) Recall that the binomial theorem states that for nN, ( ) = = 0 ( ) . (x y) n = k=0 n ( k n )x nk y k . The following multiple-choice options contain math elements, so you may need to read them in your screen reader's "reading" or "browse" mode instead of "forms" or "focus" mode. Choice 1 of 4:Set = = 1 x=y=1. Choice 2 of 4:Set = 0 , = 2 x=0,y=2. Choice 3 of 4:Set = = 1 x=y=1. Choice 4 of 4:Set = 2 , = 0 x=2,y=0

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