Question: How do U.S. GAAP and IFRS differ in their use of present values when measuring contingent liabilities? (explain) Can presently accruing pension funds be parlayed

How do U.S. GAAP and IFRS differ in their use of present values when measuring contingent liabilities? (explain)

Can presently accruing pension funds be parlayed into other investments like real estate, securities, or the likes? (explain with example)

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