I have another question, I keep confusing myself: After running a Bivariate Regression Analysis:

p=.000. The (r²=.004, (1,28.512)=25.590, p<.05). So my interpretation is there is a 0.4% variation in (my DV) problems w/public health clinics is explained by the respondents' age (IV) and the effect size is very small. The standardized regression value of= -.060, is the same value I obtained previously after running the Pearson's correlation coefficient. However, r=.060 andp-value < 0.05 (alpha), which is a positive and not a negative ;does this mean that there is a small positive effect but then how do I explain the negative coefficient number = -.060? I am confused.