In an election between two candidates the regular vote count came out in favor of candidate A. When the absentee ballots were counted, the percent in favor of candidate B was so high that B came out ahead overall. Someone conducts a statistical test to see how rare such a difference between the two vote counts would be just by chance and calculates the p-value to be .08. A newspaper writes "this shows that there is roughly a 92 percent chance that the difference between the two counts is due to some irregularity other than simply chance alone" Do you agree with the newspaper's interpretation of the p-value? Please explain.