Question: Let d i = b i - 1 for some integer b > 1 , and 1 i n , i . e . d

Let di=bi-1 for some integer b>1, and 1in, i.e.d=(1,b,b2,dots,bn-1). Does the
greedy strategy always produce an optimal solution in this case? Either prove that it does, or
give a counter-example.
 Let di=bi-1 for some integer b>1, and 1in, i.e.d=(1,b,b2,dots,bn-1). Does the

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