Make $up$ two functions $f_1$ and $f_2$ that have the same Laplace transform. $Do$ not think profound thoughts.

$f_1(t)=1$ and $f_2(t)=\{\begin{array}{cc}0,& t0,\\ t1\end{array}$

$1,t=0$

$f_1(t)=1$ and $f_2(t)=\{\begin{array}{cc}1,& 0t<mn>1</mn>\end{array}$

$0,1t$

$f_1(t)=1$ and $f_2(t)=\{\begin{array}{cc}0,& 0t<mn>1</mn>\end{array}$

$1,1t$

$f_1(t)=1$ and $f_2(t)=0$

$f_1(t)=1$ and $f_2(t)=\{\begin{array}{cc}1,& t0,\\ t1\end{array}$

$0,t=0$