1) Is it fair for a court to hold that parties are bound in contract even though one of the parties later claims that he/she did not intend to form a contract?

(2) Generally, should the courts give more weight to subjective intent in determining whether a contract has been formed?

(3) Why or why not. (include what is meant by "subjective intent")

Answer rating: 100% (QA)

Given that one party may have been unknowingly taken advantage of in this situation it would be unfa... View the full answer