need help asap please

- Consider the implication p-> q. The proposition q-> p is called the converse of p-> q. For example, the converse of the implication If a programming language is object-oriented, then it has code reuse mechanisms is If a language has code reuse mechanisms, then it's object oriented. Please produce an example of an implication and its converse. Are an implication and its converse logically equivalent? Why yes? Why not? - Consider the implication p> q. The proposition not p-> not q is called the inverse of p-> q. For example, the inverse of the implication if a programming language is object-oriented, then it has code reuse mechanisms is if a programming language is not object-oriented, then it doesn't have code reuse mechanisms Please produce an example of an implication and its inverse. - Are an implication and its inverse logically equivalent? Why yes? Why not? The logical implication operation and its contrapositive are logically equivalent. That is. if A and B are formulas, then A > B is logically equivalent to not B not A. What is the importance of this logical equivalence? Can you show an example