Part A: $$If the minimum$-$variance hedge ratio is calculated as $1\mathrm{.}0,$ the hedge must be perfect.$$ Is this statement true or false? Explain. Part B: $$If there is no basis risk, the minimum variance hedge ratio is always $1\mathrm{.}0."$ Is this statement true or false? Explain your answer. Part C: $$For an asset where futures prices are usually less than spot prices, long hedges are likely to be particularly attractive.$$ Is this statement true or false? Explain your answer.