Please solve using a BA II Plus calculator and not using NPV.

Fred is looking at an investment that would pay him nothing until five years from today and then he would receive $40,000 every six months for ten years (20 payments) with the first payment coming five years from today. He then would receive $100,000 every year for ten years with the first of these coming six months after the last payment of $40,000. Finally he would receive two payments of $500,000 with the first coming six months after the last $100,000 and the second coming five years after the first payment of $500,000. The investment would cost him $725,000 today. Barneys investment would pay him $25,000 every year for thirty years with the first of these coming six months from today. He would also receive $120,000 every five years for the next fifty years with the first coming five years from today and the last coming fifty years from today. Finally he would receive $2,500,000 forty years from today and another $2,500,000 fifty years from today. His investment would cost him $690,000 today. Using present value and assuming they have an opportunity cost of 8% (semi-annual), should they invest? ***Hint - On Barney life is not always an annuity and remember you will never use 8% - you will use 8/2 or the Effective rate.