Question: Sec 3.1 #4. let C be a well-ordered set and let f: C ->C be a one-to-one function such that a < = b implies

Sec 3.1 #4. let C be a well-ordered set and let f: C ->C be a one-to-one function such that a <₌b implies f(a) <₌f(b). Prove that a <₌ f(a) for all a in C.

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