Suppose f R R is a function from the set of real numbers to the same set with f(x) x 1 We write f 2 to represent f o f and f n 1 f n o f Is it true that f 2 o f f o f 2 Why is the set g R R 1 g o f f o g infinite why

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Question: Suppose f: R R is a function from the set of real numbers to the same set with f(x)=x+1. We write f 2 to represent

Suppose f: R R is a function from the set of real numbers to the same set with f(x)=x+1. We write f² to represent f o f and fⁿ⁺¹ = fⁿo f. Is it true that f² o f=f o f²? Why? is the set { g: R R 1 g o f= f o g} infinite? why?

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