Question: Trying to understand the variance of a binomial variable. For the variance V(Y) = p*(1-p) 2 where or why does the p multiply by 1-p?

Trying to understand the variance of a binomial variable. For the variance V(Y) = p*(1-p)² where or why does the p multiply by 1-p? Where does that even come from? I have a video here in Khan Academy and it starts at the 3:16 mark when he goes to find the variance V(Y). https://youtu.be/uudB5XiAYOw?t=196

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