Use Theorem $2\mathrm{.}1\mathrm{.}1$ to verify the logical equivalence below.

~$($p $$ ~q$)($~p $$ ~q$)$ ~p

~$($p $$ ~q$)($~p $$ ~q$)$

$$

$($~p

$$

~$($~q$))($~p $$ ~q$)$

by De Morgan's law

$$

$($~p

$$

q$)($~p $$ ~q$)$

by the double negative law

$$

~p $$

q $$ ~q

$$

~p $$

t

$$

~p