We talked about several valuation models during the semester. Which of the formulas below is consistent with a two$-$stage dividend discount model where the the first stage assumes an initial annual growth rate for N years and the second stage assumes no growth in the subsequent dividends after the Nth year? In the formulas shown below for this question assume that g$1$ and g$2$ are both positive. Assume the references to rE$,$ wacc, D$,$ g$1,$ g$2,$ and FCF are consistent with the notation used in the lectures when talking about DCF models. $[$ Iswer A: SharePrice $\_0=(\_$t$=0^$ND$\_0(1+$g$\_1)^$t$/(1+$r$\_$E$)^$t$)+$D$\_$N$(1+$g$\_2)/$r$\_$E$-$g$\_2/(1+$r$\_$E$)^$N; swer B: SharePrice Sh $\_0=(\_$t$=0^$ND$\_0(1+$g$\_1)^$t$/(1+$ wacc $)^$t$)+$D$\_$N$(1+$g$\_2)/$ wacc $-$g$\_2/(1+$ wacc $)^$N; swer C: SharePrice $\_0=(\_$t$=0^$ND$\_0(1+$g$\_1)^$t$/(1+$r$\_$E$)^$t$)+$D$\_$N$/$r$\_$E$/(1+$r$\_$E$)^$N; swer D: SharePrice $\_0=(\_$t$=0^$NF C F$\_0(1+$g$\_1)^$t$/(1+$ wacc $)^$t$)+$F C F$/$ wacc $/(1+$ wacc $)^$N; $]$