When the court fixes a term, does it amend or modify the obligation concerned?

Group of answer choices

NO, it does not amend the obligation because the court only enforces the implied intention of the parties.

YES, it amends the obligation because the law is deemed to be part and parcel of any contract.

NO, it does not amend the obligation because the judge can be one-sided and the intention of the parties cannot be subjected to judicial prerogative.

YES, it amends the obligation because the court exercises its discretion in fixing a term.