Why must a contract that cannot, by its own terms, be performed within one year from the day after the contract is formed be in writing to be enforceable?

The reason for this rule is that the court cannot be expected to be aware of any contracts more than a year old.

The reason for this rule is that the parties$$ memory of their contract$$s terms is not likely to be reliable for longer than a year.

The reason for this rule is that a contract becomes legally $$stale$$ after one year.

The reason for this rule is that attorneys cannot easily investigate contracts that are more than one year old.