Would the statement still be correct under the segmented market$$ theory?

Part $4$

This statement

$$

$$

makes sense

does not make sense

under the segmented market theory since under this theory the interest rate on a$$ long$-$term bond is

$$

$$

based on the supply and demand for bonds of that particular maturity alone

the average of the rates investors expect on short$-$term bonds over the lifetime of the long$-$term bond

$.$

$$Therefore$,$ long$-$term interest rates

$$

$$

will not

will

be impacted by the Fed if investors believe they will keep their promises on future$$ short$-$term rates.