In the previous question we were concerned with whether husbands and wives rate their degree of sexual fun congruently (i.e., to the same degree). But suppose that women have different cut points on an underlying scale of “fun.” For example, maybe women’s idea of Fairly Often or Almost Always is higher than men’s. (Maybe men would rate “a couple of times a month” as “Very Often” while women would rate “a couple of times a month” as

“Fairly Often.”) How would this affect your conclusions? Would it represent an underlying incongruency between males and females?