When all cash flows are assumed to be discounted by a single yield, why is there no

Question:

When all cash flows are assumed to be discounted by a single yield, why is there no difference between the duration (sensitivity to yield), interest-rate duration (sensitivity to rates), and spread duration (sensitivity to spreads)?
Fantastic news! We've Found the answer you've been seeking!

Step by Step Answer:

Related Book For  book-img-for-question
Question Posted: