Question: When all cash flows are assumed to be discounted by a single yield, why is there no difference between the duration (sensitivity to yield), interest-rate
When all cash flows are assumed to be discounted by a single yield, why is there no difference between the duration (sensitivity to yield), interest-rate duration (sensitivity to rates), and spread duration (sensitivity to spreads)?
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From our answer in the previous problem we saw that formulas for duration and spread durationgenerated the same valueContinuing with the bond problem ... View full answer
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