Why can we normalize so that = 1 in the previous proof?

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Why can we normalize so that μ = 1 in the previous proof?

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Foundations of Mathematical Economics

ISBN: 978-0262531924

1st edition

Authors: Michael Carter

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Question Posted: May 02, 2016 11:46 AM

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Why can we normalize so that = 1 in the previous proof?

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By construction 0 If 0 implies tha...View the full answer

Foundations of Mathematical Economics

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