Let f(x) = (x - 3)-2. Show that there is no value of in (1, 4) such

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Let f(x) = (x - 3)-2. Show that there is no value of in (1, 4) such that f(4) - f(1) = f'(c) (4 - 1). Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?

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Calculus Early Transcendentals

ISBN: 978-0538497909

7th edition

Authors: James Stewart

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Question Posted: Mar 04, 2016 06:52 AM

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Let f(x) = (x - 3)-2. Show that there is no value of in (1, 4) such

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Fx x 3 2 fx 2 x 3 3 f4 f1 fc 4 1 11 2 12 2 2c ...View the full answer

Calculus Early Transcendentals

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