Question: Let f(x) = (x - 3)-2. Show that there is no value of in (1, 4) such that f(4) - f(1) = f'(c) (4 -

Let f(x) = (x - 3)-2. Show that there is no value of in (1, 4) such that f(4) - f(1) = f'(c) (4 - 1). Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?

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