Are these proportions prevalence rates, incidence rates, or neither? Do the results in this problem give insight into why the Hispanic paradox occurs (do Hispanic men truly have lower risk of CHD as government surveys would indicate)? Why or why not? 

Given other surveys over the same time period among NHW in these counties, the researchers expected that the comparable rate of CHD for NHW would be 8%.
Another important parameter in the epidemiology of CHD is the case-fatality rate (the proportion of people who die among those who have a heart attack). Among the 100 CHD cases ascertained among Hispanics, 50 were fatal.