Does genotyping a population provide more accurate estimates of p than obtained by only having the clinical

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Does genotyping a population provide more accurate estimates of p than obtained by only having the clinical phenotype? Why or why not?

As an experiment, 10,000 people are completely genotyped, of whom 10 have the (aa) genotype, 630 have the (aA) genotype [i.e., either (aA) or (Aa)], and 9360 have the (AA) genotype.

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Fundamentals Of Biostatistics

ISBN: 9781305268920

8th Edition

Authors: Bernard Rosner

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Question Posted: May 18, 2018 09:03 AM

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Does genotyping a population provide more accurate estimates of p than obtained by only having the clinical

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Fundamentals Of Biostatistics

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