Question: Consider n Bernoulli trials, where for i = 1, 2, . . . ,n, the i th trial has probability p i of success, and

Consider n Bernoulli trials, where for i = 1, 2, . . . ,n, the i th trial has probability p_i of success, and let X be the random variable denoting the total number of successes. Let p ? p_i for all i = 1, 2, . . . ,n. Prove that for 1 ? k ? n,

k-1 Pr {X < k} > > b(i;n, p) . i=0

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