Suppose we have a potential function such that (D i ) (D 0 ) for all i, but (D 0 ) 0. Show

Suppose we have a potential function Φ such that Φ(D_i)≥ Φ(D₀) for all i, but Φ(D₀) ≠ 0. Show that there exists a potential function Φ′ such that Φ′(D₀) = 0, Φ′(Di ) ≥ 0 for all i ≥ 1, and the amortized costs using Φ′ are the same as the amortized costs using Φ.