Question: Let (B in mathscr{B}(mathbb{R})). If (int_{B} e^{i x / n} d x=0) for all (n=1,2, ldots), then (lambda^{1}(B)=0).

Let \(B \in \mathscr{B}(\mathbb{R})\). If \(\int_{B} e^{i x / n} d x=0\) for all \(n=1,2, \ldots\), then \(\lambda^{1}(B)=0\).

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