Question: 1. Between 1880 and 1920, more than __________ MLB stadiums were built. A) 40 B) 30 C) 20 D) 60 2. True or False? New
1. Between 1880 and 1920, more than __________ MLB stadiums were built.
A) 40
B) 30
C) 20
D) 60
2. True or False? New stadiums and stadium renovations are focusing less on the "seat them and feed them" design and more on using the space for entertainment zones.
A) True
B) False
3. True or False? From 1970 to 1984, nearly 50% of all stadiums were built with public funds.
A) True
B) False
4. Outline the origins of sports facilities and events.
5. The ________ phase allows sport event organizers to define the event, set objectives, and determine the sport event's feasibility.
A) initiation
B) design
C) planning
D) implementation
6. Exiting the attendees, removal of equipment, and the cleanup process are all parts of the _______ stage(s).
A) closure
B) shutdown
C) closure and shutdown
D) All of the above
7. Which of the following best describes a Gantt Chart?
A) A chart that breaks down project tasks into manageable parts
B) A chart that details the timing for each element of the event schedule
C) A bar chart that illustrates the various tasks that must be completed in a time sequence order
D) None of these is correct.
8. ________ will contribute to the attraction of future patrons to the sport facility and aid in the production of anticipated revenue.
A) Planning
B) Site selection
C) Location
D) Both Site selection and Location
9. Explain why project management is vital for a successful event.
10. In order to determine the costs of the proposed construction project, research must be conducted on the costs of which of the following?
A) Available sites and building design
B) Labor and utilities
C) Building per square foot
D) All of these are correct.
11. Failure to include proper warning signs, supervision, security, equipment, facilities, and medical emergency care are examples of:
A) public liability excluding negligence.
B) property exposure risks.
C) public liability caused by negligence.
D) risks associated with business operations.
12. According to Toohey (2008), how many sport-related terrorists attacks were reported between 1972 and 2004?
A) 268
B) 168
C) 68
D) 104
13. Which of the following are benefits of proper risk management plan?
A) Increase patron safety
B) Reduce undesirable costs
C) Reduce insurance premiums
D) All of these are correct.
14. Within the sports arena, list the five common strategies events owners use to minimize risks.
15. Capital refers to which of the following?
A) A project that will be concluded within 3 years
B) Funds needed to finance an organization's assets
C) A new facility project
D) Accessible funds that can be used to enhance an organization's assets
16. Which of the following is the only publicly owned team in the four primary North American professional sport leagues?
A) Boston Celtics
B) Florida Panthers
C) Cleveland Indians
D) Green Bay Packers
17. Professional sport teams have special loan options available to them through their respective leagues instead of individual banks. The benefit of these loan programs to the respective leagues is that they:
A) have lower interest rates and improve the fan experience.
B) improve facility infrastructure and franchise stability.
C) improve franchise stability and the fan experience.
D) improve franchise stability and reduce the risk of receiving a loan.
18. Which of the following is correct regarding a capital project?
A) A long-term investment project that will increase the organization's assets
B) Typically requires large upfront cash outlays
C) Continues to have both cash inflows and outflows over the course of the useful life of the project
D) All of these are correct.
19. With a value of $4.8 billion, which team was named the most valuable NFL franchise?
A) Green Bay Packers
B) Dallas Cowboys
C) New York Giants
D) New England Patriots
20. True or False? Event feasibility examines whether or not the event can be executed at the desired level, given the resources at your disposal.
A) True
B) False
21. When conducting a feasibility study, the manager needs to:
A) hire staff, plan the study, implement the study, write up the results, and distribute the study.
B) hire staff, plan programs, implement ideas, write up the results, and distribute the study.
C) hire staff, plan programs, implement the study, write up the results, and distribute the study.
D) hire staff, plan programs, implement ideas, write up questions, and distribute the study.
22. When conducting a SWOT analysis, which of the following areas are internal to the organization?
A) Strengths and weaknesses
B) Strengths and opportunities
C) Weaknesses and threats
D) Opportunities and threats
23. Conduct a SWOT analysis for your current collegiate institution.
24. Competing bids for hosting sports mega events, such as the Olympic Games or FIFA World Cup, are usually made at the expense of the:
A) tax payers.
B) city.
C) bureaucrats.
D) state government.
25. Explain the process to determine event feasibility.
26. Participants having a direct role in creating the event is an example of:
A) passive participation.
B) customer participation.
C) connection.
D) active participation.
27. A spectator in the stands watching the Olympic Games would be an example of which type of an experience?
A) Passive participation
B) Aesthetic
C) Active participation
D) Passive participation and aesthetic
28. Purchasing of memorabilia and pictures with athletes is an example of what type of experience dimension?
A) Cognitive
B) Immersion
C) Conative
D) Affective
29. Creation of an event-specific app that not only allows users to interact with the event, but also allows users to interact socially with friends, in an example of:
A) social interaction.
B) shared celebration.
C) co-creation.
D) the experience economy.
30. Explain how the sports field differs from other business fields.
31. Establishing a vision, mission, and concept for the event is part of the:
A) feasibility study.
B) breakeven analysis.
C) mission statement.
D) data-based marketing.
32. A feasibility study should consider which three elements?
A) Design, operations, and location
B) Marketing, location, and finances
C) Facility, location, and budget
D) Location, location, location
33. Explain how product cost indirectly affects the overall price of the event.
34. Which of the following best describes the function of personal selling?
A) To reach the target audience
B) To reach a mass audience, although message is not controlled
C) Prospecting customers to gather information from direct feedback
D) To reach a reach mass audience
35. How is socialization into sport is defined?
A) The social and psychological influences that shape an individual's initial attraction to sport
B) The acquisition of attitudes, values, and knowledge as a consequence of sport involvement
C) The influences that contribute to an individual discontinuing his or her sport participation
D) All of these are correct.
36. True or False? The attractiveness of a destination or the environment in which an event is hosted may influence individuals' motivations to attend or participate in an event.
A) True
B) False
37. How many stages are involved in the consumer decision process (CDP) model?
A) 5
B) 7
C) 3
D) 6
38. The Hyde Park Blast features which of the following events?
A) Two runners puling a homemade chariot with a rider on board
B) A 4-mile run
C) A cycling criterium
D) All of these are correct.
39. Which of the following factors refers to an individual's desire to acquire knowledge about a facility or destination, which may motivate them to select an event?
A) Competitive factors
B) Competitive and emotional factors
C) Emotional factors
D) Learning factors
40. Which of the following were reported to be to be the most powerful aspects of working on a mega event?
A) Being able to watch the event and put it on a resume
B) The impact of the event on the community and the prestige of the event
C) Having behind-the-scenes access and the prestige of the event
D) Making industry connections and having an impact on the community
41. Managers in a volunteer setting cannot possibly control the experiential outcome for one, let alone hundreds of volunteers. However, the volunteer manager can control motivations and expectations. Explain how a manager can do it and make an atmosphere where majority of the volunteers have a positive experience.
42. A thorough understanding of the inner workings of your team, organization, and product is an example of:
A) product knowledge.
B) effective communication skills.
C) goal-oriented focus.
D) patience.
43. Outcome quality is defined as:
A) perceptions of facility ambience, design feature, and quality.
B) quality perceptions of the secondary products offered in conjunction with the event.
C) what the consumer receives as a result of this interaction with a sport or leisure organization.
D) None of these is correct.
44. Provide an example of how a sponsor might interact with the consumer on a more personal level.Explain the benefits of this approach.
45. List two benefits of digital signage.
46. Explain the factors used in dynamic or variable ticket pricing.
Answer:
47. Explain the difficulties associated with examining the long-term legacies of a sport event.
48. Provide an example of how an organization may evaluate how well they manage their assets to generate return on resources they currently possess. (Hint: space utilization)
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