$\frac{35i{n}^2}{1}\frac{(2\mathrm{.}54em{)}^2}{(1(m){)}^2}\frac{(1(m){)}^2}{(100em{)}^2}$

$=0\mathrm{.}0225806m^2$

Can someone explain how they simplified this expression? $My$ answer does not match $up$ and $im$

not sure how they got this answer?

Can you just show the simplification $of$ above equation?