A 60-year-old man with a history of emphysema returns home from the hospital after suffering a myocardial infarction involving the apex of the left ventricle. Six months later, an echocardiogram reveals the development of a ventricular bulge that does not contract during systole. The patient subsequently suffers a massive stroke and suddenly expires. Which of the following is an expected pathologic fi nding at autopsy?
(A) Calcific aortic stenosis
(B) Dilated  cardiomyopathy
(C)  Mitral valve prolapse
(D) Mural  thrombus
(E) Ventricular  rupture

Answer rating: 100% (QA)

Correct option C Mitral valve prolapse Explanation Incorrect valve closure between the ... View the full answer