GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 3 Examination Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1. What is the correct order of steps in testing a hypothesis? a. statement of null hypothesis, setting level of risk, selection of test statistic b. statement of null hypothesis, computation of test statistic, selection of test statistic c. selection of test statistic, comparison of obtained value to critical value, computation of test statistic d. selection of test statistic, computation of test statistic, statement of null hypothesis 2. What is the statistical test for examining the significant difference between two means from two unrelated groups? a. t-test for dependent means b. MANOVA c. t-test for independent means d. factor analysis 3. If the two groups you are comparing are related to each other, what test should you use? a. factor analysis b. MANOVA c. t-test for independent means d. t-test for dependent means 4. When examining whether group differences occur on more than one dependent variable, what should be used? a. factor analysis b. MANOVA c. t-test for independent means d. t-test for dependent means 5. When examining the significance of the relationship between two variables, what test should you use? 137 a. t-test for dependent means b. t-test for independent means c. t-test for the correlation coefficient d. analysis of variance GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 3 Examination 6. If Helen mistakenly accepts her null hypothesis when it should be rejected, what has occurred? a. Type I error b. Type II error c. researcher bias d. None of the above. 7. How can Type II errors be reduced? a. decreasing sample size b. homogeneous population c. increasing sample size d. heterogeneous population 8. The level of significance is similar to which of the following? a. a Type I error b. a Type II error c. a bell curve d. the null hypothesis 9. What does the central limit theorem enable researchers to do? a. compare means from two independent samples b. generalize the results from a sample to a population without knowing the exact nature of the population's distribution c. compute the significance of a relationship between two variables d. reduce the possibility that chance accounts for variability in the variable of interest 10. What is the second step in developing an interview? a. state the purpose of the interview b. select an appropriate sample c. develop questions d. train the interviewers 11. When conducting an interview, what should you be careful NOT to do? 138 a. begin the interview cold b. be direct c. dress appropriately d. use a tape recorder GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 3 Examination 12. Which is the weakest correlation? a. + 0.76 b. + 0.21 c. - 0.01 d. - 0.88 13. What would a correlation of .35 be called? a. moderate b. weak c. very strong d. very weak 14. If your research does NOT include a treatment or control group, what type of research are you conducting? a. experimental research b. causal-comparative research c. descriptive research d. quasi-experimental research 15. Which interview question is open-ended? a. Do you smoke? b. Are you married? c. How old are you? d. How do you feel about tests? 16. What is the third step of developing an interview? a. selecting a sample b. developing the questions c. training the interviewers d. stating the purpose of the interview 17. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of interviews? 139 a. You may obtain additional helpful information from the interviewee's nonverbal be havior or the environment. b. They are relatively inexpensive as they do not require much time. c. You can use rapport to help put the interviewee at ease. d. You can schedule the interviews at times that are convenient to you. GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 3 Examination 18. What type of research is sometimes called \"research without the numbers\"? a. quantitative b. qualitative c. experimental d. correlational 19. Which would NOT be considered a source of information for qualitative research? a. tests b. records c. observation d. interviews 20. The fifth step in conducting historical research is _______________. a. evaluating authenticity and accuracy of evidence b. formulating a hypothesis c. defining a topic or problem d. integrating data 21. What is data that is derived from sources at least once removed from the original event? a. secondary sources b. global sources c. primary sources d. informal sources 22. What is the criteria of authenticity also known as? a. validity checks b. external criticism c. internal criticism d. accuracy 23. What is another term for accuracy? 140 a. authenticity b. secondary c. internal criticism d. validity GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 3 Examination 24. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of participant observation? a. It is time-consuming. b. There is a risk of interfering with the natural process. c. It is a primary method used in historical research. d. It is a primary method used in ethnography. 25. Which of the following is NOT a qualitative computer research tool? 141 a. N6 b. SPSS c. NVivo d. HyperRESEARCH GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 4 Examination Multiple Choice Questions (Enter your answers on the enclosed answer sheet) 1. Which design uses no control group and no random selection? a. true experimental b. quasi-experimental c. pre-experimental d. causal-comparative 2. What is an example of a true experimental design? a. pretest posttest control group design b. one-group pretest posttest design c. one-shot case study design d. nonequivalent control group design 3. What term is synonymous with internal validity? a. generalizability b. accuracy c. reliability d. control 4. Most threats to ______________ are taken care of by the experiment's design, while most threats to _____________ need to be taken care of by the designer of the experiment. a. internal validity, external validity b. external validity, internal validity c. randomization, reliability d. reliability, randomization 5. Jim was coming down with a cold and decided to take his friend's advice and drink hot lemon juice with a dash of salt to help his throat. Jim's experimentation can be categorized as what type of research? 187 a. one-group pretest posttest design b. quasi-experimental c. one-shot case study d. pretest posttest control group design GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 4 Examination 6. The experimental design that uses one group, a treatment, and a posttest is called _____________. a. one-shot case study design b. pretest posttest control group design c. Solomon four-group design d. one-group pretest posttest design 7. The experimental design that uses one group and a pretest and posttest is called ______________. a. one-group pretest posttest design b. posttest only control group design c. Solomon four-group design d. one-shot case study 8. Which allows for in-depth examination of specific behaviors? a. nonequivalent control group design b. static group comparison c. single-subject design d. one-group pretest posttest design 9. Which of the following notes that the treatment is reintroduced? a. ABA b. ABC c. ABAB d. ABAC 10. What is the primary advantage of ABAB design? a. addressing ethical concerns b. lower cost c. less time involved d. easier training 11. If it is not possible to randomize or administer a pretest, what is the best choice of design? 188 a. Analysis of Covariance (ANCOVA) b. static group design c. nonequivalent control group design d. Solomon four-group design GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 4 Examination 12. What is one suggested limitation of the single subject design? a. significant expense b. internal validity c. external validity d. None of the above. 13. Single-subject designs have roots in which of the following views of development? a. Piagetian b. behavioral c. organismic d. social learning 14. Which of the following would NOT be considered a major section of a research proposal? a. terminology b. a review of the literature c. the method d. implications and limitations 15. Which part of a research proposal is included at the author's discretion? a. introduction b. implications and limitations c. review of literature d. method 16. Which is NOT a common criticism of research articles? a. data collection not carefully controlled b. weaknesses in design of research c. hypothesis was not interesting d. limitations of the study were not stated 17. Which of the following would be found in the method section? 189 a. introduction b. running head c. rationale for the research d. participants GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 4 Examination 18. Which of the following would be found in the introduction section? a. current status of topic b. problem statement c. timeline d. research design 19. Which of the following would be found in the literature review section? a. current status of topic b. problem statement c. timeline d. research design 20. In what order are multiple authors listed on a manuscript? a. alphabetically b. order of contribution c. alphabetically by institution d. ranked by number of publications 21. A shortened title which appears at the top of each manuscript page is called a(n) _____________. a. abstract b. running head c. introduction d. reference 22. How many words in length should your abstract be? a. 50 b. fewer than 120 c. 300 d. There is no limit. 23. All tables and graphs to be used in the manuscript usually appear in which section? 190 a. references b. method c. discussion d. results GRM 697 The Research Process Unit 4 Examination 24. In a manuscript, the hypothesis ______________. a. is stated in the discussion section b. is stated in the method section c. is stated in the reference section d. may be found in the introduction 25. Manuscripts should be _______________. 191 a. single-spaced b. double-spaced c. triple-spaced d. half-spaced GRM697 - Unit Exam 3 25 questions Your score: 18 Question Results 1 Correct 2 Correct 3 Correct 4 Correct 5 Incorrect 6 Correct 7 Correct 8 Incorrect 9 Correct 10 Incorrect 11 Correct 12 Correct Question Results 13 Correct 14 Correct 15 Correct 16 Incorrect 17 Correct 18 Correct 19 Correct 20 Incorrect 21 Correct 22 Incorrect 23 Incorrect 24 Correct 25 Correct GRM697 - Unit Exam 4 25 questions Your score: 20 Question Results 1 Correct 2 Correct 3 Correct 4 Correct 5 Correct 6 Correct 7 Correct 8 Correct 9 Correct 10 Correct 11 Incorrect Question Results 12 Correct 13 Incorrect 14 Correct 15 Correct 16 Incorrect 17 Correct 18 Correct 19 Correct 20 Correct 21 Correct 22 Incorrect 23 Correct 24 Incorrect 25 Correct