Question: If the random variable z is the standard normal score and a > 0, is it true that P(z > -a) = P(z < a)?

If the random variable z is the standard normal score

and a > 0, is it true that P(z > -a) = P(z < a)? Why or

why not?

Find the (two) z-scores that bound the middle

40% of the standard normal distribution.

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