Question: Let F be a function from set X to set Y, and let C and D be any subsets of Y. Prove that: For all

Let F be a function from set X to set Y, and let C and D be any subsets of Y. Prove that: For all subsets C and D of Y , F1(C D) = F1(C) F1(D). Notice: You are required to prove that two sets are equal. You may either use the traditional proof method, or use the bi-conditional method illustrated in the proof of Theorem 7.1.1.

Let F be a function from set X to set Y, and

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