Question: . Let f(x) = 2 |2x 1|. Show that there is no value of c such that f (3) f (0) = f '(c)(3 0).


. Let f(x) = 2 |2x 1|. Show that there is no value of c such that f (3) f (0) = f '(c)(3 0). Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem
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