Question: Let f(x) = 2 |2x 1|. Show that there is no value of c such that f(3) f (0) = f'(c)(3

Let f(x) = 2 – |2x – 1|. Show that there is no value of c such that f(3) – f (0) = f'(c)(3 – 0). Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?

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