Medical Sciences Questions and Answers April 12, 2018

1. Cocaine is commonly called as :- (1) Smack (2) coke (3) crack (4) both 2 & 3 2. The hepatitis B vaccine has been produced on alarge scale through :- (1) Recombinant DNA technology using claviceps (2) Recombinant DNA technology using E.coli (3) Recombinant DNA technology using yeast (4) Recombinant DNA technology using mice 3. Identify the

B A B D Salivary (1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites gland Salivary (2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte gland Salivary (3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte gland Salivary (4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte gland

11. A cell of emf E is connected a resistance R. The potential difference between the terminals of the cell is found to be V. The internal resistance of the cell must be 2(EV)v 2(EV)R (1) (2) R E (EV)R (3) (4) (EV)R V,12. Two particles are moving as shown (m) 4ms 2ms (m) B If e1 then find velocity of particle B after collision (1) 4 ms (2) 2 ms

8. A cell of emf E having an internal resistance r is connected to an external resistance R. The potential difference V across the resistance R varies R as shown in figure by the curve E R (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D 9. Two cells of same e.m.f. E but of different internal resistances, and 2 are connected in series with an external resistance R. The

1. Two electrical bulbs marked 40 W, 220 V and 60 W, 220V when connected in series across same voltage supply of 220 V, the effective power is P and when connected in parallel, the effective power is P2. Then (PP) is (1) 0.5 (3) 0.24 (2) 0.48 (4) 0.16 2. If the equivalent resistance between the points X and Y in the given circuit is Ro, then the

30. Figure shows two plane mirrors parallel to each other and an object O placed between them. Then the distance of the first three images from the mirror M2 will be (in cm) 5cm 15cm M (1) 5, 10, 15 (3) 5,25,35 M (2) 5, 15, 30 (4) 5, 15, 25 31. When a plane mirror is placed horizontally on a level ground at a distance of 60m from the foot of a

42. A 500 kg car takes around turn of radius 50 m with a speed of 36 km/hr. The centripetal force acting on the car will be : (1) 1200 N (2) 1000 N (3) 750 N (4) 250 N

43. In a circus, stuntman rides a motorbike in a circular track of radius R in the vertical plane. The minimum speed at highest point of track will be (1) 2gR (2) 2gR (3) 3gR (4) gR 44. As per given figure to complete the circular loop what can be the maximum radius if initial height is 5m h5m (1) 4 m (2) 2.5 m (3) 3 m (4) 2 m

53. One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10 litres. The A E for this process is (R 2cal molK) (1) 163.7 Cal (2) Zero (3) 1381.1 Cal (4) 9 litatm 54. Change in entropy is negative for (1) Br2() Br2(g) (2) C(s) H2O(g) CO(g) H2(g) (3) M(g,10 atm) M(g, 1atm) (4) Fe (s, at 400K) Fe (s, at

68. anhydrous C6H6 CH3C1 C6H5CH3 HC1 AlCl3 is an example of (1) FriedelCrafts reaction (2) Kolbes synthesis (3) Wurtz reaction (4) Grignard reaction 69. Choose the type of reaction involved for (P) (Q) respectively HBr (Q) HO (1) Addition, Substitution (2) Substitution, Addition (3) Substitution, Substitution (4) Addition, Addition Br, (P) 500

64. Which is correct set 65. (1) Grignards reagent Mg (2) Francklands reagent Zn (3) Tollens reagent Ag (4) TEL Ti OH BrHO major product OH (1) O (3) Br OH Br Br OH Br OH Br Br (4) Br,66. In which of the following reaction BHC will be obtained as major product (1) CLAIC excess Clhy (2) excess 3HNi (3) (4) None of these 67. Nitration of

49. Light incident normally on a plane mirror attached to a galvanometer coil retraces backwards as shown in figure. A current in the coil produces a deflection of 3.5 of the mirror. What is the displacement of reflected spot of light on a screen placed 1.5 m away d 1.5 m (1) 10.5 cm (2) 18.31 cm (3) 15 cm (4) 3 cm 50. Two plane mirrors are lying

46. N drops of mercury of equal radii and possessing equal charges combine to form a big spherical 47. drop. Then the capacitance of the bigger drop compared to each individual drop is (1) N times (2) N23 times (3) N13 times (4) N53 times A sheet of aluminium foil of negligible thickness is placed between the plates of a capacitor of capacitance C

38. In the given diagram meters are not ideal. If reading of ammeter and voltmeter are 6A and 30V respectively then wwA R (1) R50 (2) R50 (3) R 50 (4) All the above are possible,39. A cell of constant e.m.f. is first connected to a resistance R and then connected to a resistance R2. If power delivered in both cases is equal, then the internal

27. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. If the plates of the capacitor are moved farther apart by means of insulating handles (1) the charge on the capacitor increases (2) the voltage across the plates increases (3) the capacitance increases (4) the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor

23. The force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and distance of separation of the plates d with a potential difference V between the plates is (1) CV2d (3) Cvd (2) Cv2d (4) VdC 24. In the circuit shown charge on 2uF capacitor is 2F 120V 4F 1F (1) 160 C (2) 80 C (3) 40 C (4) 20 C,25. Three capacitors each of

20. Two moving particles 'P' and 'Q' are 10 m apart at an certain instant. The velocity of P is 8 m/s making an angle 30 with line joining P and Q and velocity of Q is 6 m/s making an angle 30 with PQ as shown in figure. Then the angular speed of P with respect to Q is -

P K (1) 0 rads (2) 0.1 rads (3) 0.4 rads (4) 0.7 rads 30 6ms 10m 30 8ms

16. Two bodies of masses 15 kg and 5 kg are connected to the ends of a mass less cord and allowed to move as shown in figure. The pulley is massless and friction less. Calculate the acceleration of the centre of mass (g 10 ms) 15 kg 5 kg 5 3 ms (1) 5 ms (2) 7 ms (3) ms (4) 1,17. Two car of mass m and m are moving in circles 1 radii r and r2.

7. 6. 4. In the figure shown the current through 502 resistor is 20V 1002 ww 502 60V 20 wwww (1) 2A (2) 0 A (3) 4A (4) 6 A 5. In the circuit of adjoining figure the current through 12 2 resister will be www 50 ww E ww 120 F (1) 1 A (2) A (3) A (4) 0 A In the following circuit, the resistance of the voltmeter is 10,000 2 and that of the ammeter is

76. Which of the following halogen can reacts with alkane in dark (1) F2 (2) Br2 (3) Cl (4) 12 77. KMnO4H Product A The product of above reation will be OH (1) OH CHO (4) CHO COOH COOH 78. Which of the following reagent is used to distinguish propene and propyne (1) Br2, CCl4 (2) Dil. KMnO4OH (3) Conc. H2SO4 (4) AgNO3 in NH4OH,79. HPdCaCO3

85. Predict the products in the given reaction. CHO (1) C1 C1 50 KOH CHOH COO C1 (2) O CH,OH COO OH OH CHOH CH,COO (3) (4) OH CHOH OH OH,86. What will be the value of maximum work done by the gas when pressure on 20 gm H is reduced from 20 to 2 atm at constant temperature of 300 K, assuming gas to behave ideally (1) 57.44 kJ (2) 114.88 J (3)

81. Chloroform on reaction with air converts into (1) COC (3) CO (2) CC14 (4) CC13(OH) 82. What will be the correct order of reactivity of the following alcohols, with Lucas reagent (I) OH (II) (1) IIIIII (3) IIIIII OH (2) II IIII (4) IIIIII 83. In which of the following reaction acetone will be formed as major product (1) OH CH3CHCH3 PCC (2)

92. Which of the following compound show bromine water test :-

(1) (2) (3) CH3CHCH2CH3 (4) CH3

96. Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution by SN1 mechanism (1) CI (2) Cl (3) CI (4) CH2CI,97. The presence of unsaturation in organic compounds can be tested with (1) Schiffs reagent (2) Tollens reagent (3) Fehlings reagent (4) Baeyers reagent 98. Which of the following is incorrect (1) 03 HOZn KMnO4 (2) CH3CCH2

101. The use of bioresources by multinational companies and other organisation without proper authorisation from the countries and people concerned without compensatory payment it is known as (1) Biopiracy (3) Biodiversity (2) Biopatent (4) Biowar 102. X technique is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS petients. It is being used to

104. The below diagram represent a typical biogas plant. Select the correct option for A, B and C respectively. Gas B A Digestor (1) ASludge, BSlurry, CCH4 CO (2) ASlurry, BSludge, CCH4 CO (3) ASludge, BCH4 CO2, CSlurry (4) ACH4 CO2, BSlurry, CSludge 105. Pick up the wrong statement (1) Antibiotics are chemical substances, which are produced by

107. Large hole in Swiss cheese are due to production of large amount of CO by a (1) Bacteria (3) Yeast (2) Fungi (4) Lactobacillus 108. Which one of the following is not a secondary metabolite (1) Morphine (3) Anthocyanine (2) Concanavalin A (4) Phenylalanine 109. Lipids are insoluble in water because lipid molecules are (1) Hydrophilic (3)

112. Which of the following disease is caused by bacteria (1) Black rot of crucifers (2) Brown rust of wheat (3) Red rot of sugarcane (4) Late blight of potato 113. Better yielding semi dwarf varieties of rice developed in India were (2) Jaya IR8 (1) Jaya Ratna (3) IR8 Ratna (4) Taichung NativeI,114. Pusa A4 is shoot and fruit borer insect

118. Match the following columns. ColumnI ColumnII A Ladybird () Methanobacterium B Mycorrhiza (II) Trichoderma C Biological control (III) Aphids D Biogas (IV) Glomus (1) A2 B4 C3 D1 (2) A3 B4 C2 D1 (3) A4 B1 C2 D3 (4) A3 B2 C1 D4 119. Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given ColumnI ColumnII (a) 1.

121. In genetic engineering, a DNA segment (gene) of interest, is transferred to the host cell through a vector. Consider the following four agents (AD) in this regard and select the correct option about which one or more of these can be used as a vectorvectors. Statements (A) A bacterium (C) Plasmodium Options (B) Plasmid (D) Bacteriophage (1)

133. In chasmogamy pollination takes place in (1) open flower (3) large flower (2) closed flower (4) geitonogamy flower 134. Identify the type of flower A and B. (1) ACleistogamous BChasmogamous (2) AHomogamous BHeterogamous (3) AChasmogamous BCleistogamous (4) AHeterogamous BHomogamous 135. Identify A and B in diagram given below. (1) AStamen,

140. Which of the following molecules are never found as polymers (1) Carbohydrates (2) Lipids (3) Nucleic Acids (4) Proteins,141. Consider the following statements. I. Solid stem in wheat exhibits nonpreference by stem sawfly. II. In cotton, smooth leaf and absence of nectar do not attract bollworms. III. In maize, high aspartic acid, low

136. To cleave pBR322 at the rop site which restriction enzyme is used (1) PvuI (3) Pst II (2) Pvu II (4) Hind III 137. Biolistics is a method of (1) Artificial gene synthesis (2) Identification of recombinant host (3) Making recombinant DNA (4) Direct gene transfer in host cell 138. Trichoderma, baculovirus and dragon flies are (1) Plant pests

129. Many ovules are present in the ovary of (1) Wheat (3) Papaya (2) Rice (Paddy) (4) Mango 130. Which hydrophytic plant is not pollinated by water (1) Vallisneria (3) Water hyacinth (2) Hydrilla (4) Zostera 131. An example of dioecious plants is (1) Date palm (2) Castor (3) Cucurbits (4) Maize 132. Number of seeds are equal to the (1) number

125. Rearrange the steps of plant breeding from a to e (a) Selection of superior recombinants. (b) Cross hybridisation (c) Collection of variability (d) Evaluation and selection of parents (e) Commercialisation of new cultivars (1) db ea c (2) c d bae (3) a c be d (4) b a dea,126. Perisperm is (1) residual nucellus (2) residual endosperm (3)

144. Which of the following is not a part of biotechnology (1) Gene therapy (2) Invitro fretilization leading to a test tube baby (3) Developing of DNA vaccine (4) Biomagnification of pesticide 145. Process of recombinant DNA technology includes (i) Isolation of DNA (ii) Fragmentation of DNA by restriction endonucleases (iii) Isolation of desired

149. Polyembryony is reported in I. Citrus II. Mango Correct name are III. Gossypium (1) I and III (2) II and III (3) I, II and III (4) I and II 150. The wheat grain has an embryo with one large, shieldshaped cotyledon known as (1) epiblast (2) coleorrhiza (3) scutellum (4) caleoptile,151. therapy attempts to explain to us the origin of universe.

15. If y 3x4x2 then slope at x 1 is (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2 16. sin240 (1) 2 (3) 3 12 17. Value of sin 2 is (4) (2) 12 (1) 23 (2) (3) 90 180 (4) 0 18. The rate of mass of the gas emitted from rear of a rocket is initially 0.1 kgsec. If the speed of the gas relative to the rocket is 50 msec and mass of the rocket is 2 kg, then the acceleration

6. A dipole is placed in uniform electric field such that potential energy of dipole is maximum (U). The work done in rotating a dipole by 180 is (1) U (3) 2U (2) 3U (4) U 7. Electric charges q, q, 2q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side . The magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is (1) ql (2) 2ql (3) 3ql

11. The current in a metallic conductor is plotted against voltage at two different temperatures T and T2. Which is correct Current 2 (1) T Voltage (2) T,12. Copper and silicon are cooled from 300 K to 60 K the specific resistance (1) decreases in copper but increases in silicon (2) increases in copper but decreases in silicon (3) increases in

29. If A 21jk and B12j2k, find the magnitude of component of (AB) along B (1) 4 unit (2) 5 unit (3) 6 unit (4) 7 unit 30. Which of the following group of forces cannot produce the resultant of 2N (1) 2N and 4N (2) 1N and 3N (3) 5N and 10 N (4) 10N and 11N 31. If two vectors are shown as in figure then BA will be shown as A B (1) 7 (4) 32. The

24. A water jet whose cross section area is a striker wall making an angle e with the normal and rebounds elastically. The velocity of water of density d is v. Force exerted on wall is 0 (1) 2avd cos 0 (2) 2avd sin 0 (3) 2avd cos 0 (4) avd cos 0,25. Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 10 kg are connected to a pulley as shown. What will be their

19. Find the tension T for the system shown in figure T T T 1 kg 2 kg 3 kg (1) IgN (2) 2 gN (3) 5 gN (4) 6 gN 20. A ball of mass 0.5 kg moving with a velocity of 2 msec strikes a wall normally and bounces back with the same speed. If the time of contact between the ball and the wall is one millisecond, the average force exerted by the wall on the

33. The dimensions of Resistance is (1) LMTA (2) L2M T A (3) L M T A (4) L MT A,34. Statement1 Mass, length and time are fundamental quantities. and Statement2 Mass, length and time are independent of one another. (1) Statement1 is True, Statement2 is True Statement2 is a correct explanation for Statement1 (2) Statement1 is True, Statement2 is

61. The solubility product of CuS, AgS and HgS are 10 37, 104 and 1054 respectively. The solubility of these sulphides will be in the order (1) HgS AgS Cus (2) AgSHgS CuS (3) CuS AgS HgS (4) AgSCuS HgS,62. Equimolar solutions of HF, HCOOH and HCN at 298 K. have the values of K, are 6.8 10, 1.8 104 and 4.8 10 respectively, what will be the

65. Doubling the initial concentration of a reactant doubles t12 of the reaction then order of reaction is (1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) Zero,66. The hypothetical reaction A2 B2 2AB follows the mechanism as given below (1) AAA.......(fast) (2) A B AB B.....(slow) (3) AB AB(fast) The order of the reaction is (1) 1.5 (3) Zero (2) 2 (4) 1 67. In

56. If the maximum concentration of PbCl2 in water is 0.01M at 298 K. Its maximum concentration in 0.1M NaCl will be (1) 4 103 M x (3) 4 102 M (2) 0.4 10M x (4) 410 M,57. What will be the pH of 10 M HCl(aq) solution (1) 10 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 104 58. Which of the following solution has the highest pH (1) 0.2 M HClO4 (2) 0.20 M CH3COOH (3) 0.020 M HCl

84. Which is incorrect order of I (1) FCl BrI (2) NR,NH3NO (3) OCH3OHNH, C CHH (4) 85. Which of the following compounds is most basic (1) CH3NH2 (3) CH,NCH3 CH (2) CH3NHCH3 (4) NH3,86. Given the two concentration of HCN (K 10) are 0.1 M and 0.001 M respectively. What will be the ratio of degree of ionization (1) 1 (3) 0.003 (2) 0.1 (4) 0.01 87.

101. An autosomal character present in both sexes, but more in one sex, then such type of character is known as (1) sex linked (2) sex influenced (3) sex limited character (4) All 102. How many linkage groups are present in bacteria (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 3 103. Which of the following combination seems to have some linkage in character selected by

97. Arrange the following carbanions in decreasing order of stability e CH CH CH2 CH2 CH3 NO OCH3 (I) (II) (III) (IV) (1) IIIIIV II (2) IIIIIIIV (3) I IIIIIIV (4) IIIIIIIV,98. 88 Correct order of stability of intermediate CH CH CH CH, OCH3 OCH3 NO (I) (II) (III) (IV) (1) I IIIIIIV (2) IIIIII IV (3) IIIIII IV (4) IIIIIIIV 99. Most stable

115. In a linear chromosome map, distance between 4Loci is as follow ab 10, ad3, bc4 and ac 6 the COV (cross over value) between c d is (1) 3 (3) 3 or 9 (2) 9 (4) 4 or 12 116. Morgan works with the tiny fruit flies, Drosophila Melanogaster because (1) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in the laboratory (2) They complete their life

113. Find the correct match for sex determination in Drosophila ColumnI ColumnII (i) 2A XXX (a) Male (ii) 3A XX (b) Super male (iii) 2A XO (c) Inter sex (iv) 3AXY (d) Gynandromorph (e) Super femal (1) (i)b, (ii)a, (iii)d, (iv)c (2) (i)e, (ii)c, (iii)a, (iv)b (3) (i)e, (ii)d, (iii)a, (iv)b (4) (i)e, (ii)c, (iii)d, (iv)a,114. A husband and wife

128. Select the set of characters which does not show defining properties of living organisms (1) Consciousness, metabolism (2) Cellular organisation, metabolism (3) Reproduction, growth (4) Cellular organisation, consciousness 129. According to five kingdom system of classification protista is (1) Unicellular Prokaryote (2) Multicellular

131. Which plant group produces seeds. (1) Bryophyta (3) Thallophyta (2) Pteridophyta (4) Spermatophyta 132. Two kingdom system was mainly based on (1) Cell wall (2) Cell membrane (3) Chloroplast (4) Reserve food material,133. Which of the given organism(s) belong to kingdom protista according to five kingdom system (A) Chlorella (B) Chlamydomonas

37. Electric field at a far away distance r on the axis of a dipole is Eo. What is the electric field at a distance 2r on perpendicular bisector (1) (2) Eo Eo (3) (4) 16 16 8 38. What is the electric dipole moment of given charge system q 30 9 (1) 3qa (3) qa3 a 30 3q q (2) 3qa (4) zero 39. Two wires A and B of the same material having radii in

41. The resistance of a wire is R ohm. If it is melted and stretched to n times its original length, its new resistance will be (1) RA (3) n (2) nR (4) nR 42. The value of 0.98 is equal to (1) 0.99 (2) 0.95 (3) 0.98 (4) 0.92 43. The integral 11 xdx is e equal to (2) 124 (4) 45 (1) 125 (3) 3 433 44. The value of 1.02 is approximately (1) 1.01

47. For figure the correct relation is B D (1) ABE0 (2) CD A (3) BECD (4) all of the above 48. Given ab21, if 63j then find out vector (1) 21 3jk (2) 21 3jk (3) jk (4) 21jk 49. Which of the following relation can not be deduced using dimensional analysis (The symbols have their usual meaning) (1) y A sin (cot kx) (2) vut at (3) kmv 11m 2

51. 10 mole of KOH is dissolved in 10 litres of water. The pH of the solution is (1) 12 (3) 3 (2) 2 (4) 11 52. The solubility of a sparingly soluble compound MX2 at 25C is 5.0 103 molL. Its solubility product at that temperature is (1) 25 x 10 (2) 5.0 1011 (3) 5.0 107 (4) 1.25 10 53. The salt that forms neutral solution in water is (1) NH4Cl

70. For a reaction A B following graph is plotted A time then order of reaction is (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 71. Which of the following statements is wrong about reaction (1) There can be only three values of molecularity, that is 1,2 and 3 (2) There can be only four values of order, that is 0,1, 2 and 3 (3) There can be infinite number of values

72. For a chemical reaction if rate constant is 2 103 mol L min then order of reaction is (1) Zero (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) Can not predict 73. Which of the following is not an electrophile (1) CH3 (3) C (2) NO (4) OH

74. In which of the following compounds lone pair of nitrogen is not involved in resonance 31 (1) H (4) H 75. Select the molecule in which bonds are conjugated (1) HCCHCHCHCH2 HCCCH (2) H H (3) CO H (4) Both (1) and (3),76. Which of the following is aromatic compound NH, (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) Only a (2) a and b (3) a, b, d (4) all of these

77. Arrange following carbocations in decreasing order of stability (1) acb (3) bca (a) (b) (c) (2) abc (4) cba 78. Compare CN bond length in the following NH NH NH I II III (1) I II III (2) I III II (3) III III (4) IIIIII 79. The most stable carbanion among the following is CH2CH (1) CH CH CH (3) (4) OCH NO

80. Among the following most stable carbocation is (1) CH (2) CH CH3 (3) (4) CH2CHCH2 CH3,81. Most acidic compound is OH OH CH3 (1) LOH (3) (4) CH3CHOH NO 82. Decreasing order of stability for the following resonating structures will be CH2CH CCH, CHCICH, CHCE 83. (I) (II) (III) (1) I II III (2) II IIII (4) I III II (3) IIIII

89. Calculate the pH of a 10M solution of Ba(OH)2 if it undergoes complete ionisation. (K 1 x 1014) (1) 12.30 (3) 10.00 (2) 11.30 (4) 9.00 90. Which of the following has maximum solubility (Ksp value is given in brackets) (1) HgS (1.6 x 1054) (2) PbSO4 (1.3 x 10) (3) ZnS (7.0 1026) (4) AgCl (1.7 x 1010),91. Two substance A(t12 5 min) and B(t12

93. k0.1 M min1 Consider a reaction A(g) 2B(g). If initial concentration of A is 0.5 M, then select correct graph. (1) 0.5M (2) B time in min (3) 1.0M B 1.0M B 0.5M 5 10 5 10 time in min 20M LOM (4) 10 time in mind B 5 10 time in min,94. Observe the reaction A(g) 3B(g) 2C(g) The rate of the reaction 3 103 Mol litre min is dt dB Find the value of

105. Chromosome map for the first time was prepared by (1) A. Sturtevant (3) Watson (2) T.H. Morgan (4) Bridges,106. Tendency of genes to remain together during the formation of gametes is (1) Linkage (3) Pleiotropy (2) Inheritence (4) Test cross 107. Red green colourblindness is a sex linked trait. Which of the given statements is not correct

108. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) Mendels law of independent assortment does not hold good for the genes that are located closely on the same chromosome. Reason (R) Closely located genes assort independently. In the light of the above statements, choose the

111. Study the given figure and find out :-

Cross A 0 Cross B 0 Parental Yellow, white Wild type white miniature Wild type F. generation Q O Wild type Yellow, white Wild type white miniature white Gametes Parental Recombinant Parental Recombinant type types type types Wild type white Wild type Miniature Yellow, white Yellow White, miniature White F, generation m m Wild type white Wild type

118. The recombination frequency between the genes a c is 5, b c is 15, b d is 9, a b is 20, c d is 24 and a d is 29. What will be the sequence of these genes on a linear chromosome (1) d, b, a, c (2) a, b, c, d (3) a, c, b, d (4) a, d, b, c,119. Bamboo is a monocarpic plant, because it (1) A monocotyledon plant (2) A monocarpellary ovule

122. Which of the following is not Polycarpic plant (1) Shisham (2) Mango (3) Pinus (4) Bamboo 123. Modified shoot with highly condensed internodes is (1) Stem (2) Flower (3) Microsporophyll (4) Thalamus,124. Identify correctly the labels a,b,c and d in the figure of typical flower (1) apetals, bsepals, cstamens, dpistil (2) asepals, bpistil,

153. Louis pasteur by careful experimentation demonstrated that life comes only from preexisting life. Which theory was dismissed from his experiment (1) Chemical evolution theory (2) Spontaneous generation (3) BigBang theory (4) Biogenesis,154. Following are the two statements regarding the origin of life. (a) The first noncellular forms of life

157. Jawless fishes probably evolved around (1) 500 MYA (3) 2 MYA (2) 350 MYA (4) 200 MYA MYA.,158. Identify the correct statements with respect to brief account of evolution. (1) Icthyosaurs 200 mya (2) T. rex Herbivorous (3) Invertebrata 500 bya (4) Dinosaurs extincted 165 mya 159. Among the following example, how many are the examples of

1. First organism to reach land were :- (1) Sea-weeds (2) Plants (3) Reptiles (4) Amphibia 2. The best evidence in support of organic evolutionare:- (1) Palaentological and evidences from comparativemorphology (2) Evidences from comparative morphologyand anatomy (3) Homologous organs and Analogous organs (4) Palaentological and biogeographical 3.

1. When more than one adaptive radiationsappeared to have occurred in an isolatedgeographical area, this is called as : (1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution (3) Retrogressive evolution (4) Continuous evolution 2. Which one of the following is a commonancestor of birds, mammals and crocodiles ? (1) Sauropsids (2) Synapsids (3) Early

1. Natural selection where peak gets higher andnarrower is: - (1) Directional selection (2) Disruptive selection (3) Stabilishing selection (4) Random selection 2. Which of the following does not give theevidence of organic evolution ? (1) Embryology (2) Biochemistry (3) Biogeographical distribution (4) Urey & Miller experiment 3. Read the

171. In hardyweinberg equation, the frequency of all homozygous individuals is represented by. (1) p (3) 2pq (2) q (4) pq 172. Excess use of herbicides, Pesticides has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a much lesser time scale it was an example of evolution by (1) Mass extinction (2) Anthropogenic action (3) Continental drift

1. Direct ancenstor of Homo sepiens is (1) Homo habilis (2) Homo erectus (3) Australopithecus (4) Ramapithecus 2. Ramapothecus was more_____ while Dryopithecuswas more ______. (1) Man-like, Man-like (2) Ape-like, Man-like (3) Ape-like, Ape-like (4) Man-like, Ape-like 3. Select the incorrect statement. (1) The Neanderthal man used hides to

Column I Column II Column III First Homo (A) habilis (a) 1400 cc. (i) human being like Neanderthal 1300 Started (B) (b) (ii) man 1600 c.c agriculture 650800 (C) Java man (c) C.C. (iii) Meat eater Buried Homo (D) (d) 900 c.c. (iv) dead sapiens bodies (1) Aaii, Bciii, Cdiv, Dbi (2) Abii, Bai, Cciii, Ddiv (3) Aai, Bbii, Cdiv, Dcii (4) Aci, Baiv,

188. Which one of the following is not a vestigial organ (1) Coccyx (2) Body hairs (3) Auricular muscles (4) Nipples in female 189. What is the sequence in the evolution of mammals (1) Fish Amphibian Reptiles Mammals (2) Fish Reptiles Birds Mammals (3) Fish Amphibians Reptiles Aves mammals (4) Fish Amphibians Aves mammals 190. Homology is shown

1. Match the Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option :- 2. Which of the following statement is correctabout Homo erectus? (1) Its fossils were discovered from Java (2) It lived in East-African grasslands (3) It was first human-like being (4) It started agriculture

ColumnI ColumnII (A) Mutation theory (I) Lamarck (B) Natural selection (II) Charles Darwin Use and disuse (C) (III) A. I. Oparin of organs Chemogenetic (D) (IV) Hugo de Vries Options origin of life (1) AI, BII, CIII, DIV (2) AI, BIV, CIII, DII (3) AII, BI, CIII, DIV (4) AIV, BII, CI, DIII

1. Alfred wallace a naturalist worked on which Island:- (1) Sri lanka (2) Galapagos (3) South America (4) Malay Archepelago 2. According to Lamarck evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by ______. (1) Natural selection (2) Adaptive convergence (3) Use and disuse of organs (4) Both 1 and 3 3. ____(A)_____ and _____(B)_____ are the twokey

196. By which process man has obtained many breeds of plants and animals for agriculture, horticulture, food and security (1) Natural selection (2) Random breeding (3) Artificial selection (4) Both (1) and (2) 197. Around how many years ago the dinosaurs were disappeared from earth (1) 65 MYA (2) 165 MYA (3) 200 MYA (4) 150 MYA,198. Match List I

185. Below given is the diagrammatic representation of sequence of ancestor of human being evolution identify A, B and C in the given option and choose correct one Modern man Cromagnan man C Homo habilis B A Dryopithecus A B C (1) Australopithecus Ramapithecus Homo erectus (2) Ramapithecus Homo erectus Australopithecus (3) Ramapithecus

In December 2019, an infectious disease caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARSCoV2) was first reported in Wuhan City, Hubei Province of China which was later called Corona Virus Disease (COVID19). In the month of March 2020, many cases have been reported throughout the world as cases in Italy, South Korea, Iran and Japan

1. The nurse completes an admission database and explains that the plan of care and discharge goals will be developed with the patients input. The patient asks, How is this different from what the physician does? Which response would the nurse provide? a. The role of the nurse is to administer medications and other treatments prescribed by your

4. A patient admitted to the hospital for surgery tells the nurse, I do not feel comfortable leaving my children with my parents. Which action would the nurse take next? a. Reassure the patient that these feelings are common for parents. b. Have the patient call the children to ensure that they are doing well. c. Gather information on the patients

7. Which statement describes the purpose of the assessment phase of the nursing process? a. To teach interventions that relieve health problems b. To use patient data to evaluate patient care outcomes c. To obtain data to diagnose patient strengths and problems d. To help the patient identify realistic outcomes for health problems 8. When

10. A nurse is caring for a group of patients on the medical-surgical unit with the help of one float registered nurse (RN), one assistive personnel (AP), and one licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN). Which assignment, if delegated by the nurse, would be outside that individuals scope of practice? a. Check for the presence of bowel sounds

13. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who needs continued nursing care and physical therapy to improve mobility after surgery to repair a fractured hip. The nurse would help to arrange for transfer of the patient to which type of facility? a. A skilled care facility b. A transitional care facility c. A residential care facility d. An

1. Which information will the nurse consider when deciding what nursing actions to delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/VN) who is working on a medical-surgical unit? (Select all that apply.) a. Agency policies b. Stability of the patients c. State nurse practice act d. LPN/VN teaching abilities e. Experience of the LPN/VN 2. The

1. The term chromatin would be used in reference to which of the following? A. genetic substance B. cellular energy C. membrane support D. nuclear membrane 2. In protein synthesis, where dose translation occur? In the: A. cytoplasm between ribosomes, tRNA and mRNA B. nucleus between ribosomes, tRNA and mRNA C. nucleus between DNA and mRNA D.

5. In which phase of mitosis would chromosomes line up at the centre of thespindle: A. anaphase B. interphase C. prophase D. metaphase 6. In a cell cycle which phase takes the longest time to complete: A. anaphase B. interphase C. prophase D. telophase 7. What is the purpose of meiosis? To produce: A. DNA B. somatic cells C. diploid cells D.

1. Say that someones body temperature is measured by four different devices andthe resulting four measurements are given below. Which reading has an absoluteerror of 0.05 C? A. 38 C B. 37.8 C C. 37.85 C D. 37.855 C 2. What can be correctly said of data that are normally distributed? A. The upper and lower values of the distribution describe the

20. The nucleic acid which carries the information for protein synthesis from thecell nucleus to the ribosomes is: A. DNA B. RNA C. mRNA D. tRNA 21. Which of the following is the correct combination of the components for thenucleic acid RNA? A. Phosphate, Ribose, Uracil B. Phosphate, Deoxyribose, Proline C. Phosphate, Ribose, Thymine D. Phosphate,

17. In the ribosome of a cell, the mRNA is read to produce the particular aminoacid sequence for the formation of a protein. What is this process called? A. Translation B. Transcription C. Transportation D. Transmutation 18. Which of the base pairings in DNA would be correct? A. AT pair B. AG pair C. CT pair D. CA pair 19. The combination of a

13. How many nucleotides are required to code for a single amino acid? A. twenty B. five C. three D. one 14. The combination of a sugar, a base and at least one phosphate group is given thegeneral term of: A. nucleoside B. amino acid C. polypeptide D. nucleotide 15. The nucleus of the cell contains the master nucleic acid: A. DNA B. RNA C. mRNA D.

9. What is the name of the process of division of a somatic cells nucleus into twodaughter nuclei? A. prophase B. cytokinesis C. mitosis D. meiosis 10. In a strand of DNA, what is the combination of deoxyribose and phosphate andbase known as? A. A ribosome B. A chromatid C. A codon D. A nucleotide 11. What happens during anaphase of mitosis? A.

5. What is the standard deviation used for? A. as a measure of central tendency B. as a measure of dispersion C. as a measure of spread of data that are normally distributed D. as a measure of the error of the mean value 6. A bathroom scales displays a mass reading of 68.4 kg. Which one of the followingcould NOT be the true mass of the person

9. Look again at the fi gure of a thermometer. What is the absolute error of the temperaturereading? A. 0.05 C B. 0.5 C C. 1.0 C D. 5.0 C 10. What information does the standard deviation of a mean value tell us? A. It gives us the healthy range of values for the measured physiologicalquantity. B. It is the range within which 68 % of measured

12. How many micrograms are there in 5 milligram? A. 0.005 B. 0.5 C. 500 D. 5000 13. What does the standard deviation of the mean represent? For values that arenormally distributed, it represents: A. the value above and below the mean that includes 68 % of all data values B. the difference between the highest data value and the lowest data value

17. What is meant when a persons mass is stated as 73.6 kg? That A. the mass is closer to 73.6 than it is to 73.7 or 73.5 B. the mass is closer to 73.6 than to any other value C. the mass is between 73.5 and 73.7 D. the mass is 73.6 0.1 kg 18. Which of the following statements applies to the statistic known as the standarddeviation? A. It is a

21. Which of the following measurements is a semi-quantitative one? A. a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg B. a blood glucose level of + + + C. a state of anxiety measure of calm D. the patients name is Tim Cruise 22. A babys mass measurement is 3.8 kg 0.05 kg. What is the absolute error inthe measurement? A. 0.05 3.8 B. (0.05 3.8) 100 % C.

A 38-year-old man presented with a 2-week history of a firm, painless ulcer on the glans penis. He had recently returned from a 3-month trip to Thailand, China, Hong Kong and Australia. He was otherwise well. Examination revealed an ulcer as described by the patient, with no associated lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?