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Medical Sciences Questions and Answers April 12, 2018

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A 56-year-old woman returns from a trip to America in May. During her stay, she became unwell with a high fever, headache and muscle pains. She consulted a local doctor who noticed a rash on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet. She was admitted to hospital where a diagnosis was made and she was commenced on antibiotics. The patient

A 72-year-old man presented with a 4-day history of vague tingling over the upper right side of his face. On waking up that morning, a vesicular rash had developed over his upper right face, including the tip of his nose, and he noticed that his right eye was watering. He had a history of lichen planus, and for the past 3 years, he had used

A 26-year-old man presents to the Accident and Emergency Unit with groin pain that has come on over the past few hours, which is severe in intensity and leaves him unable to walk. He denies dysuria, haematuria or penile discharge. There is no history of trauma. On examination, he has a fever of 38.3 C, with severe tenderness on palpation of the

A 26-year-old who is taking long-term oral prednisolone (10 mg/day) therapy comes to the Emergency Department because he is worried, as his brother has been admitted to the hospital with acute chicken pox infection and he had seen him two days earlier. He is certain that he has never suffered from chicken pox. What is the most appropriate course

A 22-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a painless ulcer affecting his glans penis. He admits to unprotected sexual intercourse with a man some two weeks earlier. There is no other past medical history of note. Examination reveals a single oval, painless ulcer, surrounded by a bright erythematous margin. The base is clean and

A 39-year-old man presents with a history of poor urine output over the past 2 days. Other than bloody diarrhoea about a week ago, he has no other significant history. There were several other patients who had presented with bloody diarrhoea in the last 24 h and who had attended the same eatery that he had attended. He takes no regular

A 22-year-old man presented with a 1-week history of haematuria and haematospermia. He did not have dysuria, frequency or suprapubic pain. He was a medical student and had recently returned from an elective in East Africa. He had sexual intercourse with two fellow students while abroad and took trips into the countryside, including swimming in

A 34-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department for review. He is HIV positive and continues to have unprotected sexual intercourse with males, despite having been warned not to, usually in relation to use of crystal methamphetamine. On examination he has a large painless ulcer with rolled edges on the glans penis, and there is associated

A 20-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department with a severe sore throat. He arrived a few days earlier from Central America to visit a relative. He is extremely lethargic, with a fever, and is finding it increasingly difficult to swallow. His temperature is 38.1 C, his blood pressure is 105/80 mmHg, and his pulse is 72 beats per minute

A 28-year-old woman attended clinic. She was planning to move to South America and was 12 weeks pregnant. She wanted to review her vaccination status prior to travelling. Which vaccine is considered safe in pregnancy?

A general practitioner (GP) refers a 21-year-old man, who had been previously fit and well, for a second opinion. He had presented with a 6-week history of flitting arthralgia and myalgia. Prior to the onset of this problem, he had been on holiday in the Far East where he had unprotected sexual intercourse on one occasion only. On general

An 18-year-old student is referred by his general practitioner to the Emergency Department, suffering from pharyngitis, shortness of breath with wheeze and a morbilliform skin rash. Examination reveals generalised lymphadenopathy; wheeze in the lower zones is confirmed, and some skeletal muscle tenderness to palpation is noted. A chest X-ray is

A 23-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with severe vomiting, which began some 90 minutes after eating rice-based takeaway food that he had the night before. He complains of abdominal cramps, retrosternal pain, and has vomited ten times. He has struggled to keep water down. There is no diarrhoea. His blood pressure (BP) is 100/70 mmHg;

A 27-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department for review. He has recently returned from a diving training trip to the Caribbean and complains of severe cellulitis and irritation affecting his right ear. He has been diving both in the sea and in a large heated training pool. He has no past medical history of note and takes no regular

A 32-year-old woman attends the Genito-urinary Medicine (GUM) Clinic. She is concerned about vaginal discharge with an unpleasant smell. She has noticed these symptoms for the past 3 weeks and has been washing her genitals regularly with soap and shower gel. She sometimes puts Dettol in her bath. She is married and has had no other sexual partners

A 42-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2 hour history of sudden loss of vision in his left eye. He had a past history of hypertension but was otherwise well. A sexual history reveals that he had has unprotected intercourse with multiple partners over the preceding 2 years. He had not been screened for sexually transmitted

I have an nutrition assignment and need help i have the spread sheet. Its a diet plan and the kcalories etc

Flag question: Question 1 Question 11pts _________________ is the ability to manage results of all types electronically including laboratory and radiology procedure reports, both current and historical. Group of answer choices Data warehousing Results management Digital manipulation Electronic searching Flag question: Question 2 Question 21pts

Order Digoxin 18 mcg po bid. Child weighs 7 lbs. The safe range is 1012 mcgkg24 hrs. a. What is the safe 24hr range b. Is the ordered dose safe for a 24hr period c. If the medication is supplied 50 mcgmL, how many ml. will you administer per dose

1. A nurse who has been an LPN/LVN for 10 years is meeting with an advisor to discuss thepossibility of taking classes to become an RN. The advisor interprets which statement by thenurse as the driving force for returning to school? a. Ill need to schedule time to attend classes. b. Ill have to budget for paying tuition. c. Ill have to rearranging

1. A nursing advisor is meeting with a student who is interested in earning her RN degree. Sheknows that licensed practical nurse/license vocational nurse (LPN/LVNs) who enter nursingschool to become RNs come into the learning environment with prior knowledge andunderstanding. Which statement by the nursing advisor best describes her understanding

1. An LPN is talking with her clinical instructor about her decision to return to school to become an RN. The clinical instructor iNnterprets the LPNs outcome priority based on which statement? a.My family wanted me to go back to school. b.I want to better my financial situation. c.I really enjoy school. d.I would like to advance to a teaching

1. The RN is talking with the unit manager about ways to improve patient care. The manager introduces the concept of a cohNort. Which statement by the RN indicates that the teaching has been effective? a.A cohort is a web of connections. b.A cohort is a group of people who share common experiences with each other. c.A cohort is a group linked

1.A student nurse and the staff RN are discussing recent changes on the nursing unit. Which of the following are examples of cNhange processes? (Select all that apply.) a.Coercive b.Collaborative c.Technocratic d.Planned e.Organized 2. After a particularly challenging examination, a student is overheard in the hallway exclaiming, That instructor

2.A student must come back to the learning laboratory to repeat the skills and check for insertion of a nasogastric tube. The instructor overhears the student saying, I know I can do this, I know I can do this! The instructor interprets this behavior as a.a self-defeating behavior. b.positive self-talk. c.perfectionism. d.blaming. 3.A clinical

1.The nurse understands that there are four key habits for managing the work of success. Which action by the nurse demonstrates her understanding? a.Participating in a yoga clasNs b.Analyzing case studies on her day off c.Taking time at the beginning of the work shift to make a plan for her day d.Setting short- and long-term goals 2.A student has

1. A nursing student is learning about effective time management in her first semester of nursing school. Which action by the student indicates that she understands the first critical step? a.Setting goals based on the desired outcome b.Prioritizing goals in order of simple to complex c.Prioritizing tasks in chronological order d.Assessing the

1. A lab instructor is observing placement of a Foley catheter by a senior nursing student. If the student is in the active experimentation phase of Kolbs Theory of Experiential Learning, what action can the lab instructor expect from the student? a.The student will need to observe placement before proceeding. b.The student assists the instructor

1.A nurse is listening to a lecture on self-awareness. Which statement by the nurse indicates that the teaching has been effective? a.Self-confidence involves knowing oneself. b.Competence involves knowing oneself. c.Understanding involves knowing oneself. d.Self-awareness involves knowing oneself. 2.The student is listening to a lecture on

1. A group of nursing students is discussing how their lives have changed since beginning nursing school. The student who understands the second step of holistic cognitive theory for stress reduction recognizes which comments as descriptive of automatic thoughts? (Select all that apply.) a.My lab instructor doesnt like me. I had to repeat my

1.A first semester student is struggling in class and did not do well on her last exam. She has determined the problem to be her lack of skill in note taking. What can the student do in order to take more effective notes during lecture? a.Focus on writing key words and phrases. b.Photocopy someone elses notes. c.Write verbatim all that is said.

1.The student is listening to a lecture on the SQRRR method. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective? a.The appropriate way to use the method is to scan, skim, survey, read, recite, review. b.The appropriate way to use the method is to scan, skim, read, recite, review, reread. c.The appropriate way to use the method is to

1.The RN is performing an assessment on a patient being admitted for back pain. The nurse interprets which of the patients statements as a minor detail? a.The patient has not been able to void in 12 hours. b.The patient ate 90% of his meal. c.The patient reports being unable to walk. d.The patient was involved in a car accident 2 days ago. 2.A

1.A nursing student knows that effective listening requires attention and preparation. What actions can she take to ensure that she is proficient? (Select all that apply.) a.Read over the assigned material before class begins. b.Read over the material as soon as class is over. c.No special attention or preparation is required. d.Read the material

1.You are a first semester nursing student and have just received your first reading assignment for class tomorrow. You know that in order to succeed you will need to practice effective listening. Which actions would prepare you for class tomorrow? (Select all that apply.) a.Read over the assigned material tonight. b.Scan over the material before

1.The charge nurse is creating assignments for the oncoming shift. She notices that today staffing consists of three RNs and one LPN. Which assignment would be most appropriate for the LPN? a.Acute MI: needs preparation for the catheter lab b.Flu-like symptoms: needs reassessment of vital signs every hour c.Possible stroke: needs anticoagulation

1. A nurse manager is teaching a class about the different role elements of RNs. If she has an adequate understanding, she can state that a care provider is a.a nurse who medically manages patients. b.an RN who carries out interventions that assist patients to meet positive outcomes. c.a nurse who seeks out new endeavors. d.a nurse who seeks out

1. The student understands that the LPN/LVN role differs from the RN role in many areas. She shows understanding when she can state that the LPN/LVN and RN are similar in which area? a.Educational preparation b.Thinking skills c.Assessment skillsN d.Basic psychomotor skills 2.A student in an LPN to RN trSELECTED ANSWERition program is at the

1. A nurse manager is discussing the RNs scope of practice with a new hire. Which statement, made by the new hire, is not true of the RNs scope of practice? a.A nurse may be disciplined by the Board of Nursing for practicing beyond his or her scope of practice. b.Scope of practice is legally defined by the American Nurses Association (ANA).

1. Which function falls within the LPN/LVNs scope of practice? a.Formulating the plan of care b.Collecting data c.Selecting nursing diagnoses d.Setting goals, objectives, and outcomes 2.Which of the following is an example of professional advocacy in nursing? a.Charting and writing up a medication error b.Writing up a nursing assistant for

1. A nurse on a postsurgical unit is alarmed by the number of posTOPICerative infections that havebeen reported for her unit over the last year. The nurse acquires data from other hospitals andbegins observing the health care team to determine the hand washing rates. This nurse is functioning in which care provider role? a.Manager b.Change agent

1. What example illustrates the conclusion that can be drawn from deductive reasoning? a.All men are mortal and the Dalai Lama is a man; therefore, the Dalai Lama is mortal. b.The planet Earth orbits the Sun; therefore, all planets orbit the Sun. c.Five marbles taken from the bag are blue; therefore, all marbles from the bag are blue. d.The first

1. What skills would a nurse demonstrate if the nurse reached the competent stage of Patricia Benners theory of skill acquisition? a.Relies on more experiencedNnurses for guidance b.Can multitask, set goals, and think analytically c.Can see the whole picture and recognizes subtle changes in condition d.Recognizes patterns and responds

1. The nurse providing teaching on a weight loss program to the obese patient is applying which nursing model developed by Nola Pender? a.Interpersonal relations b.Health promotion c.Conservation d.Adaptation 2.What changes in nursing practice did Florence Nightingale make to improve the personal care of patients? a.Behaviors b.Environment

1. Select the scientific theory used in several nursing theories to explain the following scenario: One nurse, whose adult son died in the ER 11 years ago, contends that she can never walk into a hospital again and quits her job. A second nurse, whose husband died in the hospital, continues to work her shifts responsibly and compassionately

1. Which statement by a nurse reflects an accurate understanding of systems theory? a.My patient has anemia reflected by low RBC, Hgb, and Hct values, so I have to monitor for fatigue, dyspnea, and tachycardia. b.It is my responsibility to provide my patients with basic human needs including food, water, and sleep. c.Would you like me to call the

1. The nurse is using Gordons 11 categories for data collection in performing a health assessment. Which of the following represents assessment of cognition? a.How educated is the patient? b.How does the patient descrNibe his or her health? c.Is the patient well nourished? d.Has the patient had treatment for emotional problems? 2.The nurse is

1. The nurse is planning care for a patient with hypertension and obesity. Which of the following is a reasonable and measurable outcome for the nursing diagnosis of noncompliance with treatment regimen related to sidNe effects of medications? a.The patient will state two lifestyle modifications for weight management by (date certain). b.The

1. What parts make up and work together in Imogene Kings Theory of Goal Attainment? (Select all that apply.) a.Creating a method to evaluate outcomes b.Defining quality nursing care c.Setting goals d.Focusing on self-careN e.Maintaining a clean environment 2.How would you justify that a nursing theory is, in fact, a middle-range nursing theory?

1. Which of the following is an example of a measurable outcome for the patient who has undergone a surgical procedure with a pain rating of 7 on a scale of 0 to 10? a.The patients pain will be under control by Sunday. b.The patient will have no pain by the end of this shift. c.The patients pain will decrease by the end of shift on (date). d.The

1. Which of these strategies should be a priority when the nurse is planning care for a patient with hypertension? a.Obtain less expensive antihypertensive medications. b.Assist with dietary changes as the first action. c.Follow evidence-based guidelines for appropriate interventions. d.Teach about the impact of exercise on hypertension. 2.The

1. A patient with pneumonia has been using the incentive spirometer four times daily while awake during his 3-day hospitalization. How would the nurse explore the effectiveness of this intervention? a.The nurse would ask whether the patient was breathing better. b.The nurse would add turn, cough, and deep breathing exercises. c.The nurse would

1. Determine which example is true of measurability within the context of the nursing diagnosis. a.The patient will list signs of infection such as redness, pain, swelling, and warmth by the end of the shift. b.The patient will be pain-free and then walk to the bathroom. c.The patient reported abdominal pain for 2 days but denies nausea, vomiting,

1. The nurse is planning care for an 82-year-old obese female patient with Alzheimers dementia. The patient wanders, is unsteady on her feet, and is visually impaired. What should the nurse give priority to when developing the plan of care? a.Laboratory results b.Skin condition c.Safety d.Nutrition 2.The nurse is listening to a lecture on

1.An example of an intervention independently initiated by the nurse is a.starting a teaching plan for the patient who will go home tomorrow. b.instituting diet restrictions with subsequent progression of diet as tolerated. c.sending an abnormal appearing urine sample to the lab for routine urinalysis. d.writing an order for aspirin for a

1. The nurse is listening to a lecture on critical thinking. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective? a.Critical thinking involves making inferences, solving problems, arriving at decisions. b.Critical thinking involves persuading others, inducing debate, using intuition. c.Critical thinking involves making inferences, reducing

1. An RN has collected extensive data on a patient with attention deficit disorder. When weighing potential actions to help the patient and considering alternative solutions, which of the attributes of the critical thinker is the RN demonstrating? a.Creativity b.Rational thought c.Reflection d.Curiosity 2.A nurse manager is designing orientation

1. The nurse has received a change-of-shift report about these four patients. Which one should the nurse plan to assess first? a.A 23-year-old patient with cystic fibrosis who has pulmonary function testing scheduled in 30 minutes. b.A 35-year-old patient who was admitted the previous day with bacterial pneumonia and has a temperature of 100.2F.

1. Which of the following is the best example of an open-ended question regarding a patients pain? a.For how many weeks have you been having this pain? b.Does it feel like a burning pain? c.Where on your body does the pain begin and end? d.Can you describe your pain for me? 2.The nurse who can think critically will make more effective clinical

1. Which statement best assists the nurse in planning care for the patient who is not adhering to the treatment regimen? a.Patients health attitudes directly affect behavior and therefore influence adherence. b.Patients usually go to the hospital without preconceived ideas about what is wrong with them. c.Most patients adhere to the advice of

1.The nurse is listening to a lecture on critical thought. Which statement indicates that the teaching has been effective? a.Critical thought is a disciplined, rational, and self-directed activity that uses standards and criteria. b.Critical thought is an intuitive process that relies only on the nurses experience. c.Critical thought is a

1.Each element of the nursing process involves critical thinking. Which definition of assessment reflects critical thinking? a.Correctly and completely documenting the assessment data on a form b.A process of discovery and decision-making about the nature of the patients needs c.Using a systematic approach to ensure comprehensive collection of

1.The nurse is interested in whether antibiotic therapy or observation only is most effective in the treatment of sinusitis in young adults. Which of the following best describes the type of question being considered? a.Background questions b.Foreground questions c.General knowledge questions d.Both A and B. 2.Can you explain how the nurses use of

1. The American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) developed the Magnet Recognition Program for hospitals to address quality patient care. What is the significance of achieving magnet status? a.Excellence in quality patient care and recruitment and retention of nurses b.Excellence in research, patient care, and retention of physiciSELECTED ANSWER

1.Which question should the nurse ask in order to judge the validity of a research study? a.What reliability information has been provided? b.Are the instrument measures applied consistently? c.Does the instrument measure what it is supposed to measure? d.How much random error exists? 2.Which step does a researcher first use when starting a new

1. The nurse wants to know how similar the 7-minute screen (7MS) is to the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) in accurately screening for dementia. Can you distinguish the correct clinical question category for this type of question? a.Prognosis b.Diagnostic c.Harm/etiology d.Prevention 2.If you had access to the following databases for your

1.Assess the given levels of evidence and choose the one most important when evaluating the strength of a research study. a.Level 3 evidence indicates that specific-quality criteria were met. b.Level 1 evidence implies an association with specific criteria. c.Level 1 evidence indicates that specific-quality criteria were met. d.Level 2 evidence

1.A nurse manager attempts to explain why the greatest number of medication errors occurs during the evening shift. The nurse manager chooses a quasi-experimental design to study this relationship. Why did the nurse manager choose this type of research design? a.It does not allow for complete control over the variance. b.It allows for

1. Characteristics of a quantitative study include all of the following except: a.clarifies underlying assumptions. b.asks who, what, why, where, when, or how. c.describes the relationship between variables. d.is highly structured and controlled. 2. Which goals best justify the need for evidence-based practice (EBP) in nursing? (Select all that

1.The student nurse is listening to a lecture on therapeutic communication. Which statement indicates that teaching has been effective? a.The purpose of therapeutic communication is psychotherapy. b.The purpose of therapeutic communication is social communication. c.The purpose of therapeutic communication is to develop a trusting relationship.

1.What are the problems with variables? (Select all that apply.) a.Vary from subject to subject b.Determined through statistics c.Difficult to account for them d.Challenging to explain in relation to the study TOPICic e.Testing whether a correlation exists between results 2.The nurse is caring for a patient 2 hours after a left above-the-knee

1.The nurse is caring for a patient following painful radiation treatment for newly diagnosed cancer. Which question, if asked by the nurse in the orientation phase of the nursepatient relationship, is most likely to elicit a meaningful response? a.Dont you love this weather? b.How have things been going for you? c.Tell me why you didnt sTOPIC

1.Which statement, if made by the nurse, is an example of a communication technique that can facilitate communication? a.Yes, I agree with you. b.You need to talk to your doctor. c.I know just how you feel. d.What are you thinking about? 2.The nurse is working in the outpatient clinic when a patient who has been waiting to be seen for an hour

1.The RN is documenting the patients complaint of pain rated 6 on a scale of 0 to 10. Which chart entry would be the most appropriate, if made by the nurse? a.Pt. complaining of pain. MD notified. b.Pt complaining of pain rated at 6 on a scale of 010, states My left leg is really hurting. Pt. grimacing, voice elevated. MD notified. c.Pt.

1. The nurse is preparing to assess a newly admitted Chinese patient. Which of the following would be most appropriate to assess first? a.Pain b.Language barrier c.Family support d.Religious preference 2.The nurse and patient are discussing the patients perceptions and feelings related to thepatients illness. The patient is emotional and tearful

1. When preparing for patient teaching what should the nurse do first? a.Assess the learners needs. b.List key points to be presented. c.Collect the teaching materials. d.Think about how the skill can be done at home. 2. Laura, a nurse manager, is meeting with the staff, which consists of nurses from the Veteran, Baby Boomer, Generation X, and

1.The nursing student addresses an 86-year-old patient by his first name at their initial meeting. To the patient, this behavior a.is a sign of the nursing students empathy for the patient. b.could be interpreted as a lack of respect on the part of the student. c.clearly indicates that the student feels comfortable working with the patient.

Question 11pts Crude birth rate is calculated by: Group of answer choices Dividing number of live births in a period of time (usually 1 yr.) by the total population Dividing total population by the number of live births in a period of time Dividing number of live births by the number of women aged 1545 in the population Dividing the number of

In How Doctors Think, author Dr. Jerome Groopman reflects on the reasoning process that doctors use to arrive at a diagnosis. He refers to the problem of physicians becoming locked in to a diagnosis so early in the process that they overlook the important clues. The result, very often, is an incorrect diagnosis and inappropriate treatment. The

1. A patient with a deep partial thickness burn has been receiving hydromorphone through a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump for 1 week. The nurse caring for the patient during the previous shift reports that the patient woke up frequently during the night reporting pain. Which action would the nurse take? a. Administer a dose of morphine

1. In the sixteenth century a father-and-son team, by the name of , produced a compound microscope consisting of a simple tube with lenses at each end. a. van Leeuwenhoek b. Semmelweis c. Janssen d. Hooke 2. Animalcules were first described by a. Robert Hooke. b. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. c. Hans Janssen. d. John Needham.

3. Micrographia, a publication illustrating insects, sponges, as well as plant cells, was published by a. Robert Hooke. b. Antony van Leeuwenhoek. c. Hans Janssen. d. John Needham. 4. Low-power microscopes designed for observing fairly large objects such as insects or worms are a. electron microscopes. b. dark-field microscopes. c. fluorescence

6. The tool of choice to observe living microorganisms is the a. bright-field microscope. b. phase-contrast microscope. c. fluorescence microscope. d. electron microscope. 7. Which scientist is most responsible for ending the controversy about spontaneous generation? a. John Needham b. Joseph Lister c. Louis Pasteur d. Robert Koch

8. Fossils of prokaryotes go back billion years. a. 4.0 to 5.0 b. 3.5 to 4.0 c. 2.5 to 3.0 d. 2.2 to 2.7 9. Molds belong to which of the following groups of eukaryotic organisms? a. Protozoans b. Archaea c. Fungi d. Algae

12. A relationship between organisms in which the waste product of one provides nutrients for another is called a. mutualism. b. competition. c. synergism. d. commensalism. 13. Which of the following sites of the human body does not have a normal flora? a. Intestine b. Skin c. Vagina d. Blood 14. Which of the following lack nucleic acids? a.

15. The binominal system of nomenclature was originally developed by a. Pasteur. b. Linnaeus. c. Martini. d. Jenner. 16. Which of the following scientists performed the first vaccination against smallpox? a. Pasteur b. Jenner c. Semmelweis d. Koch 17. Which of the following diseases is generally caused by contaminated food? a. Mumps b. Shigellosis

7. Pili are also called a. microvilli. b. fimbriae. c. cilia. d. flagella. 8. The structures that can move fluid, mucus, or cells over the surface of a cell are a. microvilli. b. fimbriae. c. cilia. d. flagella. 9. The fluidlike portion of a cell is referred to as a. inclusion. b. cytoplasm. c. cytosol. d. nucleoplasm.

18. Which of the following diseases is transmitted via aerosols? a. Psittacosis b. Shigellosis c. Leptospirosis d. Giardiasis 19. Which of the following organisms is used in the production of cheese? a. Propionibacterium shermanii b. Acetobacter aceti c. Giardia d. Fusobacterium 20. Which of the following scientists discovered the antibiotic

1. The atomic number equals the number of a. protons. b. neutrons. c. electrons. d. protons and neutrons. 2. The atomic weight is equal to the sum of a. neutrons. b. protons and neutrons. c. neutrons and electrons. d. electrons. 3. The smallest units of matter are a. molecules. b. atoms. c. protons. d. compounds.

4. Protons are a. located in the shells. b. part of the atomic nucleus. c. negatively charged. d. uncharged particles 5. Particles of an atom located in the outermost shell and available for chemical bonding are called a. valence electrons. b. isotopes. c. excess electrons. d. neutrons. 6. Isotopes are atoms with a. the same number of electrons

7. A chemical bond in which electrons are equally shared is a(n) a. ionic bond. b. polar covalent bond. c. nonpolar covalent bond. d. hydrogen bond. 8. The transfer of electrons in a chemical bond represents a(n) a. ionic bond. b. polar covalent bond. c. nonpolar covalent bond. d. hydrogen bond. 9. The bond of oxygen and hydrogen between water

10. The isotope deuterium has a. one proton. b. one proton and one neutron. c. one proton and two neutrons. d. one proton and three neutrons. 11. After filling the first shell, the outermost shell of an atom can hold up to electrons. a. 2 b. 6 c. 8 d. 10 12. The bond between sodium and chlorine atoms in sodium chloride is a(n) a. hydrogen bond. b.

14. The unit molecules (monomers) of carbohydrates are a. monosaccharides. b. amino acids. c. nucleic acids. d. fatty acids. 15. The bond between amino acids is a(n) a. ionic bond. b. peptide bond. c. hydrogen bond. d. covalent bond. 16. Glucose and fructose are examples of a. monosaccharides. b. disaccharides. c. polysaccharides. d. lipids.

17. Two glucose molecules form a. galactose. b. lactose. c. maltose. d. fructose. 18. Starch is an example of a a. monosaccharide. b. polysaccharide. c. peptide. d. protein. 19. Cytosine always undergoes complementary base pairing with a. adenine. b. guanine. c. thymine. d. uracil. 20. The RNA nucleotide base that pairs with adenine of DNA is a.

Match the description below with the correct item from this list. a. Redox b. Electron c. Neutron d. Acid e. Base f. Salt g. Glucose h. Protein i. Polysaccharide j. Nucleic acid k. Lipid l. Tritium 1. Radioactive isotope 2. Negatively charged particle 3. Reductionoxidation reactions 4. Hydrogen ion donor 5. Ammonium chloride 6. Monomer 7.

1. Matrix formed outside the plasma membrane is referred to as a. cytoplasm. b. glycocalyx. c. exoplasm. d. cell wall. 2. The cell organelles found only in algae and plant cells are a. chloroplasts. b. mitochondria. c. vacuoles. d. vesicles. 3. Peptidoglycan is typically found in the a. cell wall. b. plasma membrane. c. nucleus. d. endoplasmic

11. The cell organelle responsible for the packaging of proteins is the a. ribosome. b. Golgi complex. c. rER. d. lysosome. . 12. Which of the following cell organelles contain digestive enzymes? a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplasts c. Lysosomes d. Peroxisomes 13. Which of the following organelles contain oxidative enzymes capable of oxidizing toxic

14. Stroma is a component of a. mitochondria. b. chloroplasts. c. lysosomes. d. peroxisomes. 15. Which of the following organisms produces toxins that target cholesterol? a. Aeromonas hydrophila b. Escherichia coli c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Corynebacterium diphtheriae 16. The intracellular fluid has a high concentration of a. sodium. b.

17. Which of the following is an active transport mechanism? a. Osmosis b. Facilitated diffusion c. Filtration d. Pinocytosis 18. Which of the following transport mechanisms transports water across the plasma membrane? a. Osmosis b. Facilitated diffusion c. Phagocytosis d. Exocytosis 19. The movement of molecules through a membrane from an area of

20. Enzymatic reactions can be expressed in which of the following chemical notations? a. S + P = E b. P + P = E c. E + S = P d. S + S = P 21. Enzymes that remove functional groups from a substrate without adding water, or that add functional groups to a double bond, are called a. oxidoreductases. b. transferases. c. hydrolases. d. lyases. ssss22.

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