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Medical Sciences Questions and Answers April 12, 2018

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24. The compound that enters the Krebs cycle and combines with oxaloacetic acid is a. citric acid. b. pyruvic acid. c. acetyl-CoA. d. phosphoglyceraldehyde. 25. Formic acid is a fermentation product of a. Streptococcus. b. Klebsiella. c. Clostridium. d. Actinomyces. 26. The central dogma concerning the flow of information from genetic material was

27. The anticodons are located in a. tRNA. b. rRNA. c. mRNA. d. ribosomes. 28. Binary fission is a form of reproduction used by a. viruses. b. bacteria. c. fungi. d. helminths. 29. In which phase of mitosis do the chromatids separate? a. Prophase b. Metaphase c. Anaphase d. Telophase

30. DNA replication occurs in which phase of the cell cycle? a. G phase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. S phase 31. Nonchromosomal DNA molecules found in a bacterial cell are a. endospores. b. transposons. c. plasmids. d. prions. 32. The actual genetic makeup of an organism is referred to as its a. phenotype. b. genotype. c. conjugation. d. construct.

1. Rod-shaped bacteria, some of which are endospore forming, are referred to as a. cocci. b. bacilli. c. spirals. d. vibrios. 2. Beadlike chains of cocci formed after cell division along a single axis are called a. diplococci. b. streptococci. c. tetrads. d. sarcinae. 3. The causative agent for Lyme disease is a a. Spirillum. b. Spirochete. c.

4. Bacterial replication is accomplished primarily by a. mitosis. b. meiosis. c. cytokinesis. d. binary fission. 5. Bacteria that use oxygen, but only at low concentration, are classified as a. obligate aerobes. b. microaerophiles. c. obligate anaerobes. d. aerotolerant anaerobes. 6. Bacteria that use organic compounds as the source of both carbon

7. Microorganisms that show optimal growth in moderate temperatures (between 25 C and 40 C) are called a. thermophiles. b. psychrophiles. c. mesophiles. d. psychrotrophs. 8. Psychrophiles are also referred to as a. cryophiles. b. thermophiles. c. mesophiles. d. psychrotrophs. 9. Which of the following organisms is a common cause of peptic ulcers?

11. Legionella and Neisseria are examples of a. facultative anaerobic gram-negative rods. b. gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci. c. spirochetes. d. anaerobic gram-negative cocci. 12. Staphylococci and streptococci are best classified in the group of a. gram-positive cocci. b. gram-negative cocci. c. gram-negative aerobic rods and cocci. d.

1. Viruses can infect a. plants. b. bacteria. c. animals. d. all organisms. 2. The suffix -virales is given to the following terms within the taxon a. Species b. Order c. Family d. Genus 3. The correct hierarchical order for virus classification is a. order, genus, family, subfamily, species. b. species, genus, family, subfamily, order. c. order,

4. The Baltimore classification system places viruses into ______ groups. a. four b. five c. seven d. nine 5. Viral capsomeres are composed of subunits called a. envelopes. b. protomeres. c. capsids. d. nucleoids. 6. RNA viruses belong to which of the following types according to the Baltimore classification system? a. I, II, III b. II, III, IV c.

10. The correct sequence of stages in the multiplication of animal viruses is a. adsorption, penetration, uNncoRatinIg, rGepliBca.tioCn, aMssembly, release. b. penetration, adsorption, assembly, uncoating, replication, release. c. adsorption, uncoating, penetration, replication, assembly, release. d. penetration, uncoating, adsorption,

13. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies are caused by a. flavoviruses. U S N T O b. virusoids. c. prions. d. orthomyxoviruses. 14.The most common viruses causing respiratory illness belong to a. Herpesviridae. b. Papovaviridae. c. Adenoviridae. d. Poxviridae. 15. Which of the following bunyaviruses is not arthropod-borne? a. Phlebovirus b.

1. The antibiotics penicillin and cephalosporin are produced by a. algae. b. slime molds. c. fungi. d. protozoans. 2. Fungi are free-living organisms. a. autotrophic b. chemotrophic c. heterotrophic d. phototrophic 3. Fungi that help the roots of plants to absorb minerals and water from the soil are a. decomposers. b. mycorrhizae. c. yeasts. d.

4. A dimorphic fungus growing as a mold prefers what temperature? a. 15 C b. 20 C c. 25 C d. 37 C 5. Conidiospores that bud off from a vase-shaped spore-bearing cell are referred to as a. arthrospores. b. porospores. c. phialospores. d. blastospores. 6. The mold responsible for the production of penicillin belongs to the subgroup of a.

7. The so-called red tide is generally caused by which of the following organisms? a. Lichens b. Bacteria c. Pfiesteria d. Dinoflagellates 8. Algae that contain agar in their cell walls belong to a. Chrysophyta. b. Rhodophyta. c. Chlorophyta. d. Phaeophyta. 9. Diatoms, major components of marine phytoplankton, belong to a. Chrysophyta. b.

10. Brown algae are commonly referred to as a. Phaeophyta. b. Rhodophyta. c. Chlorophyta. d. Chrysophyta. 11. Which of the following microorganisms require a moist environment to survive and most often live in ponds, streams, lakes, and oceans? a. Mycorrhizae b. Armillaria gallica c. Blastospores d. Protozoans 12. The process by which the nucleus

13. The eukaryotes known for the presence of a macronucleus and a micronucleus are a. algae. b. fungi. c. protozoans. d. slime molds. 14. Plasmodium is a type of a. algae. b. protozoan. c. slime mold. d. helminth. 15. Toxoplasma gondii belongs to which group of eukaryotic organisms? a. Algae b. Fungi c. Protozoans d. Helminths 16. A scolex is a

i) The guiding principle of records management is to ensure that information is available when and where it is needed, in an organized and efficient manner, and in a well maintained environment. As qualified HRIM describe the priciples your facility will ensure health records meet (5mks). ii) The organization structure of the Health Sector

i) Information security is the process by which an organization protects and secures its systems, including media, and facilities that process and maintain information vital to its operations. Describe how you will ensure information security in large teaching and referral hospital as a HR&IM (5mks) ii) Health Records and Information Managers play

In the management of Health Records and Information Management Profession there are critical aspects and membership that ensured harmony and quality services in Kenya. Describe the functions of the following management entities that synergize and enable the Profession to expand its scope? I) HRIM Board 2016 (5mks) Ii) AMRO-K established in 1990

18. Organisms that can grow on substances with very low moisture content are a. protozoans. b. fungi. c. helminths. d. algae. 19. The protozoan that lacks a cyst stage and therefore must be transferred quickly from host to host is a. Giardia lamblia. b. Trichomonas vaginalis. c. Balantidium coli. d. Entamoeba histolytica. 20. Which of the

1. Decontamination is defined as the a. killing of all microorganisms in a given area. b. reduction or removal of unwanted chemical or biological agents. c. stopping of the growth of microorganisms in a given area. d. removal of all vegetative organisms. 2. Which of the following has a higher resistance to environmental stresses than the others?

4. Which of the following methods is the simplest heat-related method to sterilize metal? a. Incineration b. Autoclaving c. Direct flaming d. Indirect heating 5. Boiling items in water for minutes will kill most vegetative bacteria and viruses. a. 3-5 b. 5-6 c. 6-8 d. 10-15 6. The technique that combines freezing and drying to preserve microbes

7. Ionizing radiation involves all of the following except a. UV light b. Gamma rays c. Electron beams d. X-rays 8. The term zone of inhibition is used in which of the following procedures? a. Use-dilution test b. Growth inhibition test c. Disk-diffusion test d. Multiple inhibition test 9. Chlorine belongs to which of the following chemical

11. The time in minutes in which 90% of the bacterial population will be killed at a given temperature is called the a. generation time. b. thermal death time. c. sterilization time. d. decimal reduction time. 12. The food preparation process in which not all microorganisms are killed, but the number of microbes capable of spoiling the food or

14. Autoclaving will usually destroy/inactivate all fungi, bacteria, viruses, and most bacterial spores but will not necessarily eliminate a. neurotoxins. b. prions. c. protozoan cysts. d. mycoplasmas. 15. The effects of different kinds of radiation depend on the following factors: a. Time of exposure, wavelength b. Intensity, frequency, thickness

3. The destruction of all microorganisms and their endospores is referred to as a. disinfection. b. degermination. c. sanitization. d. sterilization. 4. The process by which the numbers of microbes on the human skin are reduced by scrubbing is called a. degermination. b. sanitization. c. disinfection. d. sterilization. 5. In correct sequence, the

7. Chemically, agar is a a. protein. b. lipid. c. carbohydrate. d. nucleic acid. 8. Which of the following genera of bacteria need very specialized media for culturing? a. Spiroplasma b. Enterococcus c. Staphylococcus d. Pseudomonas 9. Which of the following media are defined and have an exact chemical composition? a. Complex media b. Synthetic

10. Which of the following media is often used to grow Mycobacterium tuberculosis? a. Blood agar b. MacConkey agar c. Heart infusion broth d. Middlebrooks medium 11. Media that contain complex organic substances such as blood for the growth of specific bacteria are referred to as a. enriched media. b. general-purpose media. c. differential media.

13. Nigrosin is a stain used in a. simple staining. b. gram staining. c. negative staining. d. acid-fast staining. 14. The stain used to identify bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls is the a. acid-fast stain. b. methylene blue stain. c. Gram stain. d. negative stain. 15. Which of the following stains is generally used

17. Which of the following media is used to isolate Neisseria gonorrhoeae? a. Phenylethyl alcohol agar b. Thayer-Martin agar c. MacConkey agar d. Mannitol salt agar 18. Which of the following is a general-purpose medium? a. Tryptic soy agar b. Blood agar c. Mannitol salt agar d. MacConkey agar 19. In an agar slant, bacterial colonies that appear

20. A saucer-shaped liquefaction in a gelatin stab is referred to as a. napiform. b. saccate. c. crateriform. d. stratiform. 18. Exposure to nonionizing radiation such as UV light can sometimes lead to the development of a. reproductive organ failure. b. eye damage and skin cancer. c. brain and spinal cord damage. d. musculoskeletal deformities.

1. OSHA is a division of the a. National Institutes of Health. b. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. c. U.S. Department of Labor. d. World Health Organization. 2. OSHA was established in a. 1921. b. 1971. c. 1980. d. 1985. 3. The most commonly acquired laboratory infections are caused by a. bacteria. b. viruses. c. protozoans. d. prions.

4. Hand-washing guidelines have been established by a. OSHA. b. CDC. c. NIAD. d. WHO. 5. A bloodborne training program for certain professions was established by and is required by a. OSHA. b. CDC. c. NIA. d. WHO. 6. There is/are level(s) of biosafety depending on the organisms handled. a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

10. Ebola viruses need to be handled in which of the following biosafety levels? a. BSL1 b. BSL2 c. BSL3 d. BSL4 11. A unique number that aids in finding additional toxicological information about a specific substance is the a. CAS number. b. atomic number. c. DOT ID number. d. RTECS number. 12. Fires from flammable metals require type fire

13. Fires from combustibles such as wood require type fire extinguishers. a. A b. B c. C d. D 14. Bypass fume hoods belong to the group of a. general-purpose hoods. b. radioisotope hoods. c. perchloric acid hoods. d. biosafety cabinets.

15. Which of the following eyewash/safety showers should be used for immediate flushing only, until the victim reaches another safety unit? a. Emergency shower b. Personal eyewash c. Handheld drench hose d. Combination unit 16. Ultralow freezers can freeze down to C. a. 35 b. 65 c. 85 d. 110

1. The branch of pharmacology that addresses drug amounts at various sites in the body after drug administration is called a. pharmacodynamics. b. pharmacokinetics. c. pharmacotherapeutics. d. pharmacy. 2. The generic name of a drug refers to its name. a. trade b. proprietary c. chemical d. nonproprietary 3. The most rapid rate of drug absorption

4. The decrease in blood clotting by heparin occurs at which general site of action? a. Cellular b. Extracellular c. Neuromuscular d. Intracellular 5. Which of the following is a phase I reaction in biotransformation? a. Oxidation b. Conjugation c. Acetylation d. Glucuronidation 6. All of the following are ways the kidney are used for urine

7. The time response measures all of the following except a. ED50 b. Peak effect time c. Onset of response d. Threshold level 8. When drug receptors are maximally activated it is referred to as the a. threshold level. b. peak effect. c. cessation effect. d. latency time. 9. A subacute toxic effect occurs when the adverse drug effect occurs a.

10. The specific antidote to botulinum toxin is a. sodium bicarbonate. b. antitoxin. c. pralidoxime. d. naloxone. 11. The term used to indicate the extent to which a drug reaches its site of action is a. bioactivity. b. bioavailability. c. bioremediation. d. biostasis. 12. Drugs needed for diseases with fewer than 200,000 patients, and that fail

13. The discipline addressing issues associated with the choice and application of drugs to be used for disease prevention, treatment, and/or diagnosis is a. pharmacotherapeutics. b. toxicology. c. pharmacokinetics. d. pharmacy. 14. Drugs are excreted from the body primarily via the a. lungs. b. kidneys. c. small intestines. d. spleen. 15. A

1. The findings of the antibacterial properties of Penicillium notatum were first published by a. Mosse. b. Joubert. c. Pasteur. d. Fleming. 2. Prontosil, a dye, was first used as an antibiotic by a. Pasteur. b. Domagk. c. Bovet. d. Fleming. 3. All of the following are general metabolic or structural targets for antimicrobial drugs except a. Lipid

4. Which of the following is not a common characteristic used in the selection of an antimicrobial drug? a. Selective toxicity b. Ease of delivery to the site of infection c. Ability to administer intravenously d. Potential for allergic reaction 5. The term bacteriostatic means that bacteria a. are killed by the antimicrobial drug. b. show

7. Which of the following is not a test to determine the efficacy of an antimicrobial agent against a specific organism? a. Polymerase chain reaction b. Kirby-Bauer method c. Minimal inhibitory concentration method d. Serum killing power method 8. When two antibiotics are given together to increase the therapeutic effect, the phenomenon is

10. All of the following are mechanisms of resistance used by microbes except a. Change in ribosome composition b. Development of defensive enzymes c. Increased drug elimination d. Change in membrane permeability 11. Which of the following is a synthetic antimicrobial drug? a. Penicillin G b. Penicillin V c. Cephalosporin d. Quinolone 12.

13. Which of the following antimicrobials is effective against mycobacteria? a. Penicillin b. Rifampin c. Erythromycin d. Cephalosporin 14. Which of the following is an antiviral agent? a. Amantadine b. Vancomycin c. Chloramphenicol d. Macrolides 15. Which of the following drugs is effective against Candida albicans? a. Ketoconazole b.

1. Which type of symbiosis benefits both members? a. Mutualism b. Parasitism c. Commensalism d. Pathogenesis 2. The mold that produces penicillin is an example of a. parasitism. b. mutualism. c. commensalism. d. amensalism. 3. The presence of microbes in or on the body is a(n) a. infection. b. disease. c. contamination. d. adhesion.

5. Bacterial endotoxins are a. proteins in the cell wall. b. secreted into the environment. c. components of the gram-positive cell wall. d. components of the gram-negative cell wall. 6. When a pathogen spreads from the original site to other tissues or organs it is called a(n) infection. a. local b. focal c. natural d. acute 7. A disease that is

8. Which of the following is not considered to be a vehicle transmission? a. Airborne b. Insect c. Foodborne d. Bodily fluid . 9. Which of the following is likely to be the most frequently used portal of entry for pathogens? a. Skin b. Gastrointestinal tract c. Respiratory tract d. Conjunctiva 10. Infections that may result from the use of

11. A relationship in which one organism benefits and the other is harmed is called a. commensalism. b. parasitism. c. synergism. d. antagonism. 12. The degree or extent of disease-evoking power that a microorganism has is referred to as a. virulence. b. strength. c. resistance. d. competence. 13. The virulence factors of bacteria include a. size,

14. The type of infection in which several infectious agents establish themselves at the same site is referred to as a a. chronic infection. b. necrotizing infection. c. fatal infection. d. mixed infection. 15. Healthcareassociated infections are also known as a. incidental infections. b. accidental infections. c. nosocomial infections. d.

1. Which of the following is NOT true for antigens? a. An antigen is any agent that can bind specifically to components of the immune system. b. Epitopes are the smallest part of an antigen molecule capable to bind with an antibody. c. Proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids can all be antigens under certain circumstances. d. Proteins

4. An antibody is a. a substance initiating an allergic response. b. a marker on the cell surface of macrophages. c. a protein produced by plasma cells. d. a marker on the cell surface of macrophages. 5. Which of the following cell types secretes antibodies? a. Macrophages b. T cells c. Plasma cells d. Monocytes 6. Which of the following provide

7. Which of the following cells is a granulocyte? a. Basophil b. Monocyte c. Lymphocyte d. Macrophage 8. Immunity that is a result of an actual infection is called a. artificially acquired passive immunity. b. artificially acquired active immunity. c. naturally acquired passive immunity. d. naturally acquired active immunity. 9. A substance

10. When an organ or tissue is transplanted between genetically different individuals it is called a(n) a. xenograft. b. isograft. c. autograft. d. allograft. 11. Which of the following blood types cannot receive a blood transfusion from type O blood type? a. Type A b. Type B c. All blood types can d. None of the blood types other than O can 12.

16. T cells (T lymphocytes) are divided into four categories a. Killer T cells, activating T cells, helper T cells b. Killer T cells, helper T cells, suppressor T cells, memory T cells c. Helper T cells, basophilic T cells, suppressor T cells d. Suppressor T cells, cytotoxic T cells, secondary T cells, primary T cells 17. is a pentamer and the

19. GALT is an example of a collection of lymphatic nodules in the a. respiratory tract. b. small intestine. c. stomach. d. female reproductive system. 20. Which of the following organs breaks down worn-out red blood cells? a. Spleen b. Pancreas c. Thymus d. Red bone marrow

1. Langerhans cells, which play a role in defense against microbes, are located in the a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. hypodermis. d. subcutaneous layer. 2. The papillary layer of the skin is part of the a. epidermis. b. dermis. c. hypodermis. d. subcutaneous layer. 3. Which of the following organisms is the causative agent of skin infections and

4. Which of the following is a type of acute infection generally caused by group A Streptococcus? a. Carbuncle b. Impetigo c. Erysipelas d. Acne 5. The organism often called flesh-eating bacteria is a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Staphylococcus epidermidis c. Streptococcus pyogenes d. Propionibacterium acnes 6. Acne is caused by a. Staphylococcus

7. Warts are commonly caused by the a. human papillomavirus. b. herpesvirus. c. HIV. d. varicella-zoster virus. 8. Herpes simplex infections on lips and in the mouth are most commonly caused by a. HSV-1. b. HSV-2. c. HSV-6. d. HSV-7. 9. Athletes foot is referred to as a. tinea capitis. b. tinea corporis. c. tinea versicolor. d. tinea pedis.

10. Diaper rash in infants is commonly caused by a. Sporothrix schenckii. b. Actinomyces. c. Candida albicans. d. Malassezia furfur. 11. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the a. feet. b. scalp. c. mouth. d. hands. 12. Subcutaneous mycoses occur predominantly in the a. tropics. b. deserts. c. forests of the Northern Hemisphere. d. Rocky

13. A chronic localized subcutaneous infection characterized by verrucoid lesions on the skin is a. candidiasis. b. leprosy. c. shingles. d. chromoblastomycosis. 14. The most important fungi that cause diseases of the skin, hair, and nails are called a. Plasmodium. b. sporozoites. c. dermatophytes. d. nematodes.

15. Variola virus of the orthopoxvirus family causes the acute, highly contagious disease a. shingles. b. smallpox. c. jock itch. d. ringworm. 16. It is often difficult for antibiotics to effectively reach the infection site of osteomyelitis primarily because of a. destruction of the local blood supply. b. denaturing of the drug by normal flora c.

Jack and Jill are role playing as doctor and nurse with their new set of toys they received on their birthday. Jack will test Jills knee reflex with his hammer. Jill sits very straight in her little chair, feet touching the ground. Jack comes in and starts hitting her knee with the hammer. He soon is unhappy as nothing is happening so he quits

Ms. Patty Mayo is a 21-year-old African American female cominginto the clinic with a complaint of shortness of breath. She statesthat her symptoms began 1 week ago when she had a cold. Her coldsymptoms are now resolved, but she continues to have shortness ofbreath and some coughing throughout the day, especially when she isat softball practice or

5. Although the ECG does not directly measure mechanical events, scientists and clinicians make assumptions about the hearts mechanical activity based on the ECG. Answer the following questions about this relationship between the ECG and the hearts mechanical activity using information from Models 1, 2 and 3 a) What does the P wave represent
5. Although the ECG does not directly measure mechanical events, scientists and clinicians make assumptions about the heartsimage

Kayla consumes about 100 grams of protein each day. Of this, 25 grams is broken down and used to make ATP, and 25 grams is used to synthesize (make) body fat. What does this tell you about Kayla's protein and calorie intake?

Mary Jo lost her partner of 47 years about 6 months ago. She was Jims primary caregiver over the course of his cancer treatment that lasted 2 years. For the last month of his life, Jim and Mary Jo were able to receive assistance from hospice services, for which Mary Jo was extremely grateful because this allowed her to keep Jim at home, which is

At a doctor visit, a 44 year old woman mentions that she is finding it harder to read and is planning to make an appointment with an ophthalmologist. What could be causing these symptoms?

The client is advised to drink 1 liter of water every 6 hours. If the client is using a glass that holds 100 mL of water, how many glasses of water does the client need to drink every 6 hours

What is the difference between t-tests and ANOVA versusregression (one big difference)? Explain it as if you were teachingsomeone. How many groups are you allowed to have in an independentsamples t-test? How many groups are you allowed to have in anone-way ANOVA? What are some of the advantages of MultipleRegression? How is regression with a

9. The normal range for cardiac output in adults is 4.08.0 Lmin. Vanessa and Miguel both have resting heart rates of 68 beatsmin but Vanessa has a larger stroke volume due to the fact that she is currently under a fairly high level of stress. Miguels stroke volume is 74mL. Vanessa has an end diastolic volume of 118mL but an end systolic volume of

B.W. is a 44-year-old man who presents to the family practicewith complaints of sore throat, hoarseness, and a dry cough thatworsens at night. He states that the cough started 6 days ago, andthe sore throat and hoarseness began 3 days ago and appear to begetting worse The patient has a history of prediabetes, which iscontrolled through diet and

Although modern gladiators do not fight to the death and are notslaves as the ancient gladiators did and were, how might death andmetaphorical slavery still be an issue for those who fight for aliving today?

Bilateral orchiectomy (descended testes) with retroperitoneallymph node dissection in patient with stage II testicular cancerwith hypersecretion of testicular hormones. What is the ICD-10codes

The most abundant tissue in the body is connective tissue, what characteristics do all connective tissues have in common? Describe how bone and blood are both connective tissues, be sure to describe the common characteristics in both bone and blood.

2. The upper and lower limbs of the human body have the exact same body plan. Answer the questions below to diagram out that body plan of human limbs. a. How many bones are in the upper portion of each limb (Hint you have 4 limbs 2 arms, 2 legs.) Name these bones. b. How many bones are in the lower portion of each limb (Hint you have 4 limbs 2
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5. What is antigenic shift? Explain the concept of antigenic shift with respect to influenza. How does antigenic shift affect the efficacy of the vaccine? 6. Which strains of influenza typically infect humans? 7. What are the typical symptoms associated with influenza?

13. Heparin 7,500 units SC od. How many ml should be administered if the stock is 5,000 units in 5cc vial 14. Pen G 1,200,000 units IV q6h. How many ml of the drug should be administered if the stock is 1,000,000 units in a 10 ml vial 15. Ampicillin 500 mg IV q6h. How many cc of the drug will be administered if the stock is 1 g vial
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2. Identify these muscles highlighted in the image below, that acting together flex the neck, and acting individually draw the head to the same side shoulder (1 point) 3. Identify the name given to the large bulk of muscle that lays in the groove on either side of the entire vertebral column. It extends, laterally flexes, and rotates the vertebral
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1. What information does the Institute for Safe Medication Practices provide to help nurses minimize the risk of medication errors? Give three specific examples. Provide a rationale to support your responses.

What sections of the Nursing Practice Act and the Board Rulesaddress documentation in the texas board of nursing? What do you feel is the best way to handle narcotic wastage ifanother nurse is not readily available?

Ryan is a 12 year old diagnosed with Oppositional DefiantDisorder (ODD). As a small child, Ryan was first diagnosed withAttention Deficit, Hyperactivity Disorder. He had just startedpreschool and was unable to remain in one place for more than aminute or two. His parents had already had a very difficult time indisciplining him, because he would

A shipment was delivered to Chart House restaurant in DanaPoint. Maria, who was in charge of receiving, halfheartedlyinspected the shipment and immediately proceeded to store theitems. First, she carried the bags of raw shrimp to the freezer toprevent them from thawing. The freezer door was propped open whenshe arrived and she noticed ice crystals

The problem-oriented medical record (POMR) was developed by Dr.Lawrence L. Weed. The POMR is based on the client\'s problems, andevery health-care employee, including the provider, adds to thechart in a particular place in the same manner. The POMR identifiesthe client\'s problems, not simply diagnoses that are based ondefined data. A problem can

The human body has a blood volume of about 5 liters (p = 1060 kg / m3). The total volume of blood with a cell density of 1225 kg / m3 turned out to contain 1% white blood cells and 44% red blood cells. Red blood cells 7.5 x 106 m in diameter. Determine the total number of blood cells in human blood

The first sport drink created was Gatorade. It was invented in 1965 by four doctors at the University of Florida Medical School in Gainesville, FL. The doctors were able to conduct their initial experiments with 10 freshman players on the Florida Gators (hence the name Gator-Ade) football team during their daily practices. The original formula of

The American Nurses Associations Scope and Standards ofPractice describes how registered nurses use the nursing process asthe foundation for decision-making. Base your response on the ANAStandards of Professional Practice Nursing: Scope and standards ofpractice (You must be logged in to the College library to accessthis resource) Initial

An elderly patient in long-term care is on an enteralfeeding. The nursing staff reports the patient is febrile with apresent temperature of 102.60F. How much should the RD adjust theK-calorie requirements?

2. What is the average size of a myosin motor step along anactin filament in nm)? What is the average size of a kinesin motorstep along / (across) a tubulin dimer (in nm)? 3. Write the definition of the rate of ATP hydrolyzation Rinyour own words. How would you calculate the rate of ATPhydrolyzation, you know the step size of the motor proteins

6. An "S3" heart sound is an extra sound heard early in ventricular diastole, corresponding to the time when there is rapid filling of the ventricle with blood. One theory regarding its cause is that the inflow of blood from the atria produces an oscillation of blood back and forth between the walls of the ventricles. Describe 2 conditions that

1. The nurse prepares an in-service session on nursing theory prior to a study being conducted on the care area. Which phrase should the nurse use to explain nursing theory? Select all that apply. Serve to organize thinking around an idea Is a statement of a fact Is based on observation of facts Helps to find meaning in experiences Is an organized

5. Consider a patient whose treatment with heparin is being halted, so that only metabolism is affecting their heparin levels. The patient currently has a level of 12 mg of heparin in their system, and a level of 0.5 mg is the lowest still considered to be clinically effective. How long does it take after the drug supply is stopped for his or her

Question 11pts Segregation and confinement of infected individuals from others who are known to be suffering from disease is known as: Group of answer choices quarantine the epidemic curve isolation part of the epidemiological triangle Flag question: Question 2 Question 21pts Conducting a survey, and interpreting and disseminating its results, is

P.T. is a 35 - year - old male with a three - year history of cluster headache . He presents to the neurology clinic for follow - up . He states that he has not had any headaches for approxi mately one year until they returned about six weeks ago . He has recently been through a divorce , lost his mother to cancer , and started a new job . His

Can the gut microbiome, which is influenced by diet and environmental factors, be manipulated through personalized probiotic interventions to target neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer's, considering the complex interplay between the gut-brain axis, neuroinflammation, and individual genetic predispositions?

How can we leverage the interplay between the gut microbiome, the immune system, and genetics to develop personalized therapeutic approaches for autoimmune diseases like inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?

After collecting an arterial sample, it is necessary to remove any air bubbles from the syringe because... After collecting an arterial sample, it is necessary to remove any air bubbles from the syringe because... CO2 in bubbles can diffuse into the sample, thus increasing the sample CO2 value and altering the pH results CO2 in the sample can

You are working full time as an orthodontic assistant. One of your patients is a 19 year old male who has been in full mouth braces for 4 months. On his last two visits, you notice that he is starting to get some areas of localized gingivitis around his canine teeth, and that there is significant plaque buildup around his brackets and gumline

Question 11pts Which statement about giardiasis is true? Group of answer choices There have been giardiasis outbreaks all over the United States. Giardiasis is transmitted by mosquito. Ticks are the mode of transmission for giardiasis. Giardiasis is a disease not found outside of Africa. Flag question: Question 2 Question 21pts Rabies virus was

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