Question: (a) Show that if is an eigenvalue of A then k is an eigenvalue of Ak. (b) What is wrong with this proof generalizing
(b) What is wrong with this proof generalizing that? "If λ is an eigenvalue of A and λ is an eigenvalue for B, then λμ is an eigenvalue for AB, for, if A→x = λ→x and B→x = λ→x then AB→x = Aλ→x = λA→x λ→x"?
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