According to (11 41), x (x) 0 On the other hand, by Leibniz ' rule, (x (x)) ' (x) x '(x) is apparently not zero Can you explain this paradox ...

x x x because they both yield the ...

According to (11.41), x (x) = 0. On the other hand, by Leibniz' rule, (x (x))'

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According to (11.41), x δ(x) = 0. On the other hand, by Leibniz' rule, (x δ (x))' = δ(x) + x δ'(x) is apparently not zero. Can you explain this paradox?

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Applied Linear Algebra

ISBN: 978-0131473829

1st edition

Authors: Peter J. Olver, Cheri Shakiban

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Question Posted: Jun 18, 2016 09:04 AM

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According to (11.41), x (x) = 0. On the other hand, by Leibniz' rule, (x (x))'

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Applied Linear Algebra

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