According to (11 41), x (x) 0 On the other hand, by Leibniz ' rule, (x (x)) ' (x) x '(x) is apparently not zero Can you explain this paradox

Question: According to (11.41), x (x) = 0. On the other hand, by Leibniz' rule, (x (x))' = (x) + x '(x) is apparently not

According to (11.41), x δ(x) = 0. On the other hand, by Leibniz' rule, (x δ (x))' = δ(x) + x δ'(x) is apparently not zero. Can you explain this paradox?

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