Comprehensive Optometry Concepts: Visual Acuity, Refraction, and Accommodation

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Medicine - Optometry

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Cards in this deck(100)

The endpoint for second MPMVA ensures the circle of least confusion on the retina. This is achieved using the _____ method.

If a patient has clear 20/20 vision and the spherical lenses match the initial MPMVA findings, the second MPMVA may be stopped at the _____ endpoint.

The patient should gain approximately one additional line of visual acuity for each _____ added.

If the change makes the letters smaller, darker, or better but not clearer, do not accept the change and remove the extra _____ DS added.

The duochrome test endpoint involves dim illumination and ensures sharper and clearer letters. Red indicates more _____, and green indicates more _____.

The peak wavelength of 620 nm corresponds to the _____ filter.

The peak wavelength of 535 nm is associated with the _____ filter.

In the duochrome test, red and green have _____ brightness.

The duochrome test is based on the principle of _____, where light of shorter wavelength is refracted more by the eye's optics.

An uncorrected eye that is slightly myopic will see _____ more clearly, while the green is blurry.

The duochrome test is unreliable for blur greater than _____ D, especially in older patients.

Can a patient with color deficiency still perform the duochrome test? The answer is _____.

A _____ patient will report that red is duller during the duochrome test.

If the patient is adequately fogged, the focus of the red rays will be _____ to the retina than the green rays.

The clock dial test helps determine the minus cylinder-correcting axis, which is oriented at _____ degrees.

The correcting axis is _____ degrees perpendicular to the two clock hours in the clock dial test.

The clock dial and rotating T are examples of _____ charts used in optometry.

The astigmatic chart process requires the eye to be sufficiently fogged to locate the two principal _____ of the eye.

If the patient's astigmatism is fully corrected, the Interval of Sturm is _____.

When astigmatism is corrected, the horizontal and vertical foci lines _____ at the retina.

Astigmatic charts require the eye to be _____, with horizontal and vertical lines in front of the retina.

The JCC test refines cylinder axis and power after fogging lenses are removed. It is a simple test to fine-tune _____ from retinoscopy.

Astigmatic charts are beneficial because they do not require retinoscopy results and are a good alternative if the patient responds poorly to the _____ test.

It is wise to consider multiple _____ measurements of astigmatism, such as autorefraction and retinoscopy.

The JCC check test is performed to rule out uncorrected astigmatism if only spherical refractive error was found during _____.

The JCC has a minus lens cylinder on one side and a plus cylinder on the other, with cylinder axes located _____ degrees apart.

During the JCC steps, begin with sphere power from the initial MPMVA test and place _____ DC of cylinder power in the phoropter.

During monocular subjective testing, all attempts are made to maximally relax the patient's _____ at distance.

In normal viewing conditions, the patient is _____. Thus, evaluate the binocular refractive state after monocular subjective testing.

You want the stimulus to accommodation to be _____ in each eye under binocular conditions.

Inequal clarity and size of retinal images in each eye can lead to _____.

Reduced stereoacuity and fusional amplitudes can cause visual discomfort and inefficiency, symptoms of _____.

Binocular balance tests are performed after monocular refraction to balance and relax _____ in the two eyes.

Binocular balance is not performed in patients with _____ due to loss of accommodation after cataract surgery.

Prism Dissociation and Alternate Occlusion are methods used in _____ balance.

In binocular refraction tests, the two eyes are not dissociated to balance _____.

The purpose of binocular balance is to equalize the stimulus to _____ for the two eyes.

The secondary purpose of binocular balance is to relax _____.

If the corrected visual acuity is the _____ for both eyes, the binocular balance test can be performed by comparing visual acuities.

If the corrected visual acuity is _____ the same for both eyes, a test not based on visual acuity must be used.

A sighting dominance check is performed if the patient achieves 20/20 in each eye but reports unequal clarity during the _____ test.

The sighting dominance test is also performed when determining the dominant eye for prescribing _____ contacts.

Binocular refraction tests differ from balancing tests because they are performed without the use of _____ dissociation.

The peripheral portions of the distance chart are seen binocularly, while the central portion is seen monocularly due to _____ disparity.

The Turville Infinity Balance Test measures the strength of the statistical linear relationship between the optometer and each of the _____ tests.

A trial frame refraction is used to determine the patient's refractive error when the _____ is unavailable.

Trial frame refraction is suitable for patients with very high refractive error or those with _____ restrictions.

The stenopaic slit refraction is used to determine the refractive error of each major meridian individually, especially in patients with _____ astigmatism.

Similar to the _____, the stenopaic slit can be used to diagnostically determine a patient's potential visual acuity.

Cycloplegic refraction measures a patient's refractive error in the absence of accommodation using _____ drugs.

1% Cyclopentalate is an antiparasympathetic drug that causes mydriasis and _____ by blocking the ciliary body.

Cycloplegic refraction is performed in cases of latent hyperopia and accommodative strabismus, commonly _____ in children.

Side effects of cyclopentalate include drowsiness, dry mouth, and fast heartbeats. It can also cause _____ and skin flushing.

Contraindications for cyclopentalate include narrow anterior chambers and patients with _____ or Down's Syndrome.

Atropine, available in 0.5% or 1%, is the strongest cycloplegic agent used when absolute cycloplegia is needed, such as in _____ kids.

1% Tropicamide is effective for _____ children.

If the patient was unable to relax accommodation during dry refraction, additional plus power will be found in the _____ refractive error after cycloplegia.

The amount of cylinder power found with cycloplegia is likely to be more accurate compared to _____ retinoscopy.

Delayed subjective refraction maximally relaxes accommodation and encourages acceptance of plus power without _____.

If the patient has latent hyperopia, the delayed subjective refraction method will reveal a greater amount of _____ acceptance.

Mohindra's near retinoscopy determines the patient's distance refractive error using the retinoscope's light as the _____ target.

In Mohindra's procedure, the patient fixates on the retinoscope light in a dark room, with the examiner positioned _____ cm from the patient.

Add _____ DS sphere to the spherical component of the spherocylinder to determine the patient's distance correction in Mohindra's method.

-1.25 DS is an empirically defined _____ factor used in Mohindra's near retinoscopy.

+0.75 DS is associated with _____ accommodation.

-0.75 DS or -1.00 DS is used for infants less than _____ years old.

For toddlers greater than 2 years old, use _____ DS.

The amount of muscle contraction by ciliary muscles is referred to as the _____ stimulus.

The amount of actual physical changes in the shape of the natural lens is known as the _____ response.

A physical accommodative target placed closer than infinity requires a _____ D stimulus of accommodation.

Both methods of accommodative stimuli _____ the vergence of light rays within the eye.

The stimulus to accommodation is specified in _____.

Dynamic Retinoscopy and Binocular Cross Cylinder Test are used to measure _____ accommodation.

The MEM method is used to objectively measure the accuracy of the patient's _____ response to a near target.

In the MEM method, _____ subtract working distance to determine MEM values.

During the MEM procedure, the examiner uses (+) or (-) lenses to neutralize the _____ reflex.

If the examiner holds the lens for more than 1 second, the patient's accommodation will respond to lens power and the _____ will change.

The expected MEM value ranges from +0.25 D to _____ D.

The accommodative response should be the _____ OU, accommodating equally under binocular conditions.

Incorrect binocular balance or unequal monocular accommodative disorder can lead to an _____ accommodative response.

+0.50 D is considered a normal _____ response, indicating focusing behind the plane of the target.

An abnormal or poor accommodative response, such as accommodative insufficiency, is indicated by an AL greater than _____.

An accommodative response of +0.25 D, plano, or > -0.25 D indicates _____, such as accommodative excess.

The minimum expected amplitude of accommodation is calculated as 15 - 0.25 times the _____.

The average expected amplitude of accommodation is calculated as 18.5 - 0.30 times the _____.

The maximum expected amplitude of accommodation is calculated as 25 - 0.40 times the _____.

NRA/PRA evaluates the patient's ability to increase and decrease accommodation when a near target is held stationary at a specific _____ distance.

Negative relative accommodation (NRA) involves a decrease in _____.

Positive relative accommodation (PRA) involves an increase in _____.

NRA/PRA can help determine a _____ for a presbyopic patient.

NRA/PRA is usually performed in the phoropter after distance manifest refraction, with the near target at _____ cm.

In NRA, add plus a quarter OU until the first sustained _____.

In PRA, add minus a quarter OU until the first sustained _____.

If the patient reports near letters are blurry at the beginning of the NRA/PRA test, add +0.25 D OU until the letters are _____.

Record the amount of (+) power added for NRA and (-) power added for PRA relative to the distance spec rx or near add for a _____.

With the near target at 40 cm, the accommodative demand is 2.50 D. Thus, you expect NRA to be _____ D.

If the patient still reports the near target is clear with -3.00 D added, you can stop the test and record _____ PRA.

For the _____, you want the spec rx to be in the middle of the NRA and PRA.

Non-presbyope findings typically show NRA of +2.00 (+/- 0.50) and PRA of _____ (+/-1.00).

NRA and PRA can vary widely, but near bifocal add + NRA should not exceed _____ D.

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