Question: Let f(x) =(x + 1)/(x 1). Show that there is nocontradict f(2) f(0) = f(c) (2 0). Why does this not contradict

Let f(x) =(x + 1)/(x – 1). Show that there is nocontradict f(2) – f(0) = f’(c) (2 – 0). Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?

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