Let f(x) tan x Show that f(0) f() but there is no number c in (0, ) such that f '(c) 0 Why does this not contradict Rolles Theorem ...

f tan f0 tan 0 0 tan f f sec 2 1 so f c ...

Let f(x) = tan x. Show that f(0) f() but there is no number c in

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Let f(x) = tan x. Show that f(0) − f(π) but there is no number c in (0, π) such that f'(c) = 0. Why does this not contradict Rolle’s Theorem?

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Calculus Early Transcendentals

ISBN: 9781337613927

9th Edition

Authors: James Stewart, Daniel K. Clegg, Saleem Watson, Lothar Redlin

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Question Posted: Jul 26, 2022 05:36 AM

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Let f(x) = tan x. Show that f(0) f() but there is no number c in

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