Question: companies can also obtain superior performance based upon pre-emption, which is the result of exploiting some form of first-mover advantage. Being first does, however, not

companies can also obtain superior performance based upon pre-emption, which is the result of exploiting some form of first-mover advantage. Being first does, however, not necessarily imply pre-emption.

What are two examples of when first does and when being first does not lead to pre-emption?

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