Question: No inverse exists unless f is a bijection. Why ? Definition: Let ( f ) be a bijection from ( A ) to ( B

No inverse exists unless f is a bijection. Why ? Definition: Let \( f \) be a bijection from \( A \) to \( B \). Then the inverse of \( f \), denoted \( f^{-1} \), is the function from \( B \) to \( A \) defined as \( f^{-1}(y)=x \) iff \( f(x)=y \) 1 answer

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