Focus On Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition Amy M. Karch - Solutions

After teaching a group of students about RBC production, the instructor determines that the teaching was effective when the group states that the rate of RBC production is controlled by a. Iron. b. Folic acid. c. Erythropoietin. d. Vitamin B12.
Clients are often given iron pills by their clinic. Instructions in giving these pills should include a. Taking the drug with milk to avoid GI problems. b. The potential for constipation. c. Keeping these potentially toxic pills away from children. d. Taking the drug with
RBCs must be continually produced by the body because a. The iron within the RBC wears out and must be replaced. b. RBCs cannot maintain themselves and wear out. c. RBCs are continuously entering and being lost from the GI tract. d. RBCs are processed into bile salts and must be
In a healthy person, little iron is needed on a daily basis. Loss of iron is associated with which conditions? a. Heavy menstrual flow.b. Bile duct obstruction. c. Internal bleeding. d. Penetrating traumatic injury. e. Bone marrow suppression. f. Alcoholic cirrhosis.
Which would the nurse include in the teaching plan when describing all types of anemia to a patient? a. A decreased number of or abnormal RBCs b. A lack of iron in the body c. A lack of vitamin B12 in the body d. An excessive number of platelets
Megaloblastic anemia is a result of insufficient folic acid or vitamin B12, affecting which? a. White blood cell production b. Vegetarians c. Rapidly turning over cells d. Slow-growing cells
The nurse would expect the physician to prescribe epoetin alfa (Epogen) as the drug of choice a. For acute blood loss during surgery. b. To replace blood loss from traumatic injury. c. For treatment of anemia during lactation.d. For treatment of anemia associated with renal failure.
A patient with anemia who is given iron salts could expect to show a therapeutic increase in hematocrit. a. Within 72 hours. b. Within 2 to 3 weeks. c. Within 6 to 10 months. d. Within 1 to 2 weeks.
To ensure maximum absorption, a nurse instructs a patient receiving oral iron therapy to avoid taking the iron with a. Protein. b. Antibiotics. c. Fats. d. Antiplatelet medications.
After teaching a patient with pernicious anemia about vitamin B12 therapy, which patient statement would indicate that the teaching was successful? a. “I can take this pill with breakfast.” b. “I should take this pill at bedtime.” c. “I need to inject this drug
During severe exertion, a man may lose up to 4 L of hypotonic sweat per hour. This loss would result in a. Decreased plasma volume. b. Decreased plasma osmolarity. c. Decreased circulating levels of ADH. d. Return of body fluid balance to normal after ingestion of 100 mL of
Considering the metabolic functions of the kidneys, renal failure would be expected to cause which conditions? a. Anemia b. Loss of calcium regulationc. Urea buildup on the skin d. Respiratory alkalosis e. Metabolic acidosis f. Changes in the function of blood cells.
Urine passes through the ureter by. a. Osmosis. b. Air pressure. c. Filtration. d. Peristalsis.
During severe diarrhea, there is a loss of water, bicarbonate, and sodium from the GI tract. Physiological compensation for this would probably include which conditions? a. Increased alveolar ventilation b. Decreased hydrogen ion secretion by the renal tubules c. Decreased urinary
When describing renal reabsorption to a group of students, the instructor would identify it as the movement of which? a. Substances from the renal tubule into the blood b. Substances from the blood into the renal tubule c. Water that is increased in the absence of ADH d. Sodium
Maintenance of blood pressure is important in maintaining the fragile nephrons. Reflex systems that work to ensure blood flow to the kidneys include. a. The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system causing vasoconstriction. b. Baroreceptor monitoring of the renal artery. c.
Considering the functions of the kidney, if a patient lost kidney function, a nurse would expect to see a. Increased red blood cell count. b. Decreased fluid volume. c. Low blood potassium. d. Variability in control of blood pressure.
Blood flow to the nephron differs from blood flow to other tissues in that a. The venous system is not involved in blood flow around the nephron. b. There are no capillaries in the nephron allowing direct flow from the artery to the vein. c. Efferent and afferent arterioles allow for
Concentration and dilution of urine are controlled by.a. Afferent arterioles. b. The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system. c. Aldosterone release. d. The countercurrent mechanism.
Women tend to have more problems with bladder infections than men because a. Women have Escherichia coli in the urinary tract. b. Women have a short urethra, making access to the bladder easier for bacteria. c. The prostate gland secretes a substance that protects men from bladder
Most diuretics act in the body to cause a. Loss of calcium. b. Loss of sodium. c. Retention of potassium. d. Retention of chloride.
Diuretics are currently recommended for the treatment of which conditions? a. Hypertension b. Renal disease c. Obesity d. Severe liver disease e. Fluid retention of pregnancy f. Heart failure
Diuretics cause a loss of fluid volume in the body. The drop in volume activates compensatory mechanisms to restore the volume, including a. Suppression of ADH release and stimulation of the countercurrent mechanism. b. Suppression of aldosterone release and increased ADH release. c.
Routine nursing care of a client receiving a diuretic would include which interventions? a. Daily weighing b. Tight fluid restrictions c. Periodic electrolyte evaluations d. Monitoring of urinary output e. Regular IOP testing. f. Teaching the patient to report muscle
Thiazide diuretics are considered mild diuretics because a. They block the sodium pump in the loop of Henle. b. They cause loss of sodium and chloride but little water. c. They do not cause fluid rebound when they work in the kidneys. d. They have little or no effect on
When providing care to a patient who is receiving a loop diuretic, the nurse would determine the need to regularly monitor which? a. Sodium levels b. Bone marrow function c. Calcium levels d. Potassium levels
When developing the plan of care for a patient with hyperaldosteronism, the nurse would expect the physician to prescribe which agent? a. Spironolactone b. Furosemide c. Hydrochlorothiazide d. Acetazolamide
A patient with severe glaucoma who is about to undergo eye surgery would benefit from a decrease in intraocular fluid. This is often best accomplished by giving the patient a. A loop diuretic. b. A thiazide diuretic. c. A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. d. An osmotic diuretic.
The nurse would instruct a patient receiving a loop diuretic to report a. Yellow vision. b. Weight loss of 1 lb/d. c. Muscle cramping. d. Increased urination.
When describing methylene blue to a patient, the nurse should explain that it is a urinary tract anti-infective that acts by a. Interfering with bacterial cell wall formation. b. Interfering with bacterial cell division. c. Alkalinizing the urine, which kills bacteria. d.
In evaluating a client for the presence of a bladder infection, one would expect to find reports of which conditions? a. Frequency of urination b. Painful urination c. Edema of the fingers and hands d. Urgency of urination e. Feelings of abdominal bloating. f. Itching,
The antibiotic of choice for a patient with cystitis who has great difficulty following medical regimens is a. Penicillin. b. Fosfomycin. c. Ciprofloxacin. d. Nitrofurantoin.
Important educational points for clients with cystitis include which information? a. Avoidance of bubble baths b. Voiding immediately after sexual intercourse c. Always wiping from back to front d. Avoidance of foods high in alkaline ash e. Tight fluid restriction f.
Urinary tract antispasmodics block the pain and discomfort associated with spasm in the smooth muscle of the urinary tract. The numerous adverse effects associated with these drugs are related to a. Their blockade of sympathetic beta-receptors. b. Their stimulation of cholinergic
A patient with sinus pressure and pain related to seasonal rhinitis would benefit from taking. a. An antitussive. b. An expectorant. c. A mucolytic. d. A decongestant.
Antitussives are useful in blocking the cough reflex and preserving the energy associated with prolonged, non productive coughing. Antitussives are best used with a. Postoperative patients. b. Asthma patients. c. Patients with a dry, irritating cough. d. COPD patients who tire
Patients with seasonal rhinitis experience irritation and inflammation of the nasal passages and passages of the upper airways. Treatment for these patients might include. a. Systemic corticosteroids. b. Mucolytic agents. c. An expectorant. d. Topical nasal steroids.
Antihistamines should be used cautiously in patients with a. Histories of arrhythmias or prolonged QT intervals. b. COPD or bronchitis. c. Asthma or seasonal rhinitis. d. Angioedema or low blood pressure.
A patient is not getting a response to the antihistamine that was prescribed. Appropriate action might include. a. Switching to a decongestant. b. Stopping the drug and increasing fluids. c. Trying a different antihistamine. d. Switching to a corticosteroid.
Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme), because of its mechanism of action, is reserved for use in.a. Clearing secretions before diagnostic tests. b. Facilitating the removal of secretions postoperatively. c. Frotecting the liver from acetaminophen toxicity. d. Relieving the buildup of secretions
Treatment of obstructive pulmonary disorders is aimed at a. Opening the conducting airways or decreasing the effects of inflammation. b. Blocking the autonomic reflexes that alter respirations. c. Blocking the effects of the immune and inflammatory systems. d. Altering the
The xanthines. a. Block the sympathetic nervous system. b. Stimulate the sympathetic nervous system. c. Directly affect the smooth muscles of the respiratory tract. d. Act in the CNS to cause bronchodilation.
Your patient has been maintained on theophylline for many years and has recently taken up smoking. The theophylline levels in this patient would be expected to a. Rise because nicotine prevents the breakdown of theophylline. b. Stay the same because smoking has no effect on
A patient with many adverse reactions to drugs is tried on an inhaled steroid for treatment of bronchospasm. For the first 3 days, the patient does not notice any improvement. You should a. Switch the patient to a xanthine. b. Encourage the patient to continue the drug for 2 to 3
Leukotriene receptor antagonists act to block production of a component of slow-reacting substance of anaphylaxis. They are most beneficial in treating.a. Seasonal rhinitis. b. Pneumonia. c. COPD. d. Asthma.
Respiratory distress syndrome occurs in a. Babies with frequent colds. b. Babies with genetic allergies. c. Premature and low-birth-weight babies. d. Babies stressed during the pregnancy.
Lung surfactants used therapeutically are a. Injected into a developed muscle. b. Instilled via a nasogastric tube. c. Injected into the umbilical artery. d. Instilled into an endotracheal tube properly placed in the baby’s lungs.
After teaching a group of students about GI activity and constipation, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students state which information about constipation? a. It results from increased peristaltic activity in the intestinal tract. b. It occurs primarily
The CTZ in the brain is activated by which processes? a. Stretch of the uterus b. Stretch of the bladder c. Decreased GI activity d. Radiation e. Cell death f. Extreme pain
In explaining the importance of the pancreas to a student nurse, the instructor would explain that the pancreas a. Is primarily an endocrine gland. b. Secretes enzymes in response to an increased plasma glucose concentration. c. Neutralizes the hydrochloric acid secreted by the
Acid production in the stomach is stimulated by which factors? a. Protein in the stomach b. Calcium products in the stomach c. High levels of acid in the stomach d. Alcohol in the stomach e. Low levels of acid in the stomach f. H2 stimulation
Gastrin a. Stimulates acid secretion in the stomach. b. Secretion is blocked by the products of protein digestion in the stomach. c. Secretion is stimulated by acid in the duodenum. d. Is responsible for the chemical or gastric phase of intestinal secretion.
When explaining the control of the activities of the GI tract— movement and secretion—the nurse would be most accurate to state that the GI is basically controlled by a. The sympathetic nervous system. b. The parasympathetic nervous system. c. Local nerve reflexes of the GI nerve
The presence of fat in the duodenum causes a. Acid indigestion. b. Decreased acid production. c. Increased gastrin release. d. Contraction of the gallbladder.
Laxatives are drugs that are used to a. Increase the quantity of wastes excreted. b. Speed the passage of the intestinal contents through the GI tract. c. Increase digestion of intestinal contents. d. Increase the water content of the intestinal contents.
The laxative of choice when mild stimulation is needed to prevent straining is a. Senna. b. Castor oil. c. Bisacodyl. d. Magnesium citrate.
Cathartic dependence can occur when a. Patients do not use laxatives routinely and experience severe bouts of constipation. b. Chronic laxative use leads to a reliance on the intense stimulation of laxatives. c. Patients maintain a nutritious high-fiber diet. d. Patients start
Drugs that stimulate parasympathetic activity are used to increase GI activity and secretions. For which condition would this group be most likely used? a. Duodenal ulcers b. Gastric ulcers c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease d. Poisoning, to induce nausea and vomiting
The drug of choice for treating and/or preventing traveler’s diarrhea is a. Loperamide. b. Opium. c. Rifaximin. d. Bisacodyl.
The nurse anticipates prochlorperazine (Compazine) would be the antiemetic of choice for which condition? a. Nausea and vomiting after anesthesia b. Nausea and vomiting due to cancer chemotherapy c. Motion sickness d. Intractable hiccoughs
Nursing interventions for the client receiving an antiemetic drug would include which? a. Frequent mouth care. b. Bowel program to deal with constipation c. Protection from falls or injury. d. Fluids to guard against dehydration e. Protection from sun exposure f. Quiet
Most antiemetics work with the CNS to decrease the activity of.a. The medulla. b. The chemoreceptor trigger zone. c. The respiratory center. d. The sympathetic nervous system.
Palonosetron (Aloxi) would be the drug of choice for a client with which problems? a. Nausea and vomiting associated with cancer chemotherapy. b. A prolonged QT interval. c. Delayed nausea and vomiting associated with antineoplastic chemotherapy. d. Difficulty swallowing.e.
Which instruction would be most appropriate to give to a patient to reduce the risk of photosensitivity related to the use of antiemetic agents? a. Avoid having your picture taken. b. Cover the head at extremes of temperature. c. Take extra precautions to avoid heat stroke. d.
A parent calls with concerns that a 2-year-old child ate a bottle full of baby aspirin. The nurse would advise the parent to a. Administer ipecac immediately. b. Induce vomiting by inserting a finger against the back of the child’s throat. c. Force fluids as the parent brings the
In a nonpregnant woman, the levels of the sex hormones fluctuate in a cyclical fashion until a. All of the ova are depleted. b. The FSH and LH are depleted.c. The hypothalamus no longer senses FSH and LH. d. The hypothalamus becomes more sensitive to androgens.
After teaching a group of students about the effects of the various sex hormones, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which as related to estrogen? a. Increased levels of high-density lipoproteins b. Increased calcium density in the
Insulin is available in several forms or suspensions, which differ in their a. Effects on the pancreas. b. Onsets and durations of action. c. Means of administration. d. Tendencies to cause adverse effects.
A patient with hyperglycemia will often present with a. Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. b. Polycythemia, polyuria, and polyphagia. c. Polyadenitis, polyuria, and polydipsia. d. Polydipsia, polycythemia, and polyarteritis.
A client is recently diagnosed with diabetes. In reviewing his past history, which would be early indicators of the problem? a. Lethargy b. Fruity-smelling breath c. Boundless energy d. Weight loss e. Increased sweating f. Getting up often at night to go to the bathroom
The HbA1c blood test is a good measure of overall glucose control because a. It reflects the level of glucose after a meal. b. Fasting for 8 hours before the test ensures accuracy. c. It reflects a 3-month average glucose level in the body. d. The test can be affected by the
Treatment of diabetes may include which? a. Replacement therapy with insulin b. Control of glucose absorption through the GI tract c. Drugs that stimulate insulin release or increase sensitivity of insulin receptor sites d. Surgical clearing of the capillary basement
Currently, the medical management of diabetes mellitus is aimed at a. Controlling caloric intake. b. Increasing exercise levels. c. Regulating blood glucose levels. d. Decreasing fluid loss.
Which should NOT be used for the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis?a. Risedronate b. Alendronate c. Zoledronic acid.d. Parathyroid hormone.
Administration of propylthiouracil would include giving the drug.a. Once a day in the morning. b. Around the clock to assure therapeutic levels. c. Once a day at bedtime to decrease adverse effects. d. If the patient is experiencing slow heart rate, skin rash, or excessive bleeding.
Thyroid replacement therapy is indicated for the treatment of a. Obesity. b. Myxedema. c. Graves disease. d. Cushing disease.
The thyroid gland is dependent on the hypothalamic–pituitary axis for regulation. Increasing the levels of thyroid hormone (by taking replacement thyroid hormone) would a. Increase hypothalamic release of TRH. b. Increase pituitary release of TSH. c. Suppress hypothalamic release
Hypothyroidism is a common and often missed disorder. Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include.a. Increased body temperature. b. Thickening of the tongue. c. Bradycardia. d. Loss of hair. e. Excessive weight loss. f. Oily skin.
A patient who is receiving a bisphosphonate for the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis should be taught a. To also take vitamin D, calcium, and hormone replacement. b. To restrict fluids as much as possible. c. To take the drug before any food for the day with a full glass of
The long-term alterations in fat, carbohydrate, and protein metabolism associated with diabetes mellitus result in a. Obesity. b. Thickening of the capillary basement membrane. c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. d. Lactose intolerance.
Which would be the first choice for a newly diagnosed client with diabetes mellitus type II who does not have any other health problems? a. Canagliflozin b. Liraglutide c. Pioglitazone d. Metformin
Miglitol differs from the sulfonylureas in that it a. Greatly stimulates pancreatic insulin release. b. Greatly increases the sensitivity of insulin receptor sites. c. Delays the absorption of glucose, leading to lower glucose levels. d. Cannot be used in combination with other
Teaching subjects for the patient with diabetes should include a. Diet and exercise changes that are needed. b. The importance of avoiding exercise and eating one meal a day. c. Protection from exposure to any infection and avoiding tiring activities. d. Avoiding pregnancy and
The hypothalamus maintains internal homeostasis and could be considered the master endocrine gland because.a. It releases stimulating hormones that cause endocrine glands to produce their hormones. b. No hormone-releasing gland responds unless stimulated by the hypothalamus. c. It
A patient has been stabilized on phenytoin (Dilantin) for several years and has not experienced a grand mal seizure in more than 3 years. The patient decides to stop the drug because it no longer seems to be needed. In counseling, the nurse should include which points? a. The patient will
When teaching a group of students about epilepsy, which characteristic should the nurse include? a. Always characterized by grand mal seizures b. Only a genetic problem c. The most prevalent neurological disorder d. The name given to one brain disorder
Which type of seizure would the nurse be least likely to include as a type of generalized seizure?a. Petit mal seizures b. Febrile seizures c. Grand mal seizures d. Complex seizures
Drugs that are commonly used to treat grand mal seizures include. a. Barbiturates, benzodiazepines, and hydantoins. b. Barbiturates, antihistamines, and local anesthetics. c. Hydantoins, phenobarbital, and phensuximide. d. Benzodiazepines, phensuximide, and valproic acid.
The most common adverse effects associated with antiepileptic therapy reflect the depression of the CNS. In assessing a patient on antiepileptic therapy, the nurse would monitor the patient for which conditions? a. Hypertension b. Insomnia c. Confusion d. GI depression e.
Which instruction would the nurse encourage a patient receiving an antiepileptic drug to do? a. Give up his or her driver’s license. b. Wear or carry a MedicAlert identification. c. Take antihistamines to help dry up secretions. d. Keep the diagnosis a secret to avoid
The drug of choice for the treatment of absence seizures is. a. Valproic acid. b. Methsuximide. c. Phensuximide. d. Ethosuximide.
Focal or partial seizures a. Start at one point and spread quickly throughout the brain. b. Are best treated with benzodiazepines. c. Involve only part of the brain. d. Are easily diagnosed and recognized.
One drug that is used alone in the treatment of partial seizures is. a. Carbamazepine. b. Topiramate. c. Lamotrigine. d. Gabapentin.
Treatment of epilepsy is directed at a. Blocking the transmission of nerve impulses into the brain. b. Stabilizing overexcited nerve membranes. c. Blocking peripheral nerve terminals. d. Thickening the meninges to dampen brain electrical activity.
Parkinson disease is a progressive, chronic neurological disorder that is usually. a. Associated with severe head injury. b. Associated with chronic diseases. c. Associated with old age. d. Known to affect people of all ages with no known cause.
A client asks the nurse to explain parkinsonism to him. Which possible causes of parkinsonism might be included in the explanation? a. Adverse effects of drug therapy. b. Brain injury. c. Viral infection. d. Dementia. e. Bacterial infection. f. Birth defect.
Parkinson disease reflects an imbalance between inhibitory and stimulating activity of nerves in the.a. Reticular activating system. b. Cerebellum. c. Basal ganglia. d. Limbic system.
No therapy is available that will stop the loss of neurons and the eventual decline of function in clients with Parkinson disease. As a result, nursing care should involve which interventions? a. Regular exercises to slow loss of function. b. Supportive education as drugs fail and new
The main underlying problem with Parkinson disease seems to be a decrease in the neurotransmitter. a. Acetylcholine. b. Norepinephrine. c. Dopamine. d. Serotonin.
Replacing dopamine in the brain would seem to be the best treatment for Parkinson disease. This is difficult because dopamine.a. Is broken down in gastric acid. b. Is not available in drug form. c. Cannot cross the blood–brain barrier. d. Is used peripherally before reaching the

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Focus On Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition Amy M. Karch - Solutions

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