Focus On Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition Amy M. Karch - Solutions

Corticosteroid hormones are released during a sympathetic stress reaction. They would cause which actions? a. Increase blood volume. b. Cause the release of glucose for energy. c. Increase the rate of protein production. d. Block the effects of the inflammatory and immune
Glucocorticoids are hormones that a. Are released in response to high glucose levels. b. Help regulate electrolyte levels. c. Help regulate water balance in the body. d. Promote the preservation of energy through increased glucose levels, protein breakdown, and fat formation.
Diurnal rhythm in a person with a regular sleep cycle would show.a. High levels of ACTH during the night while sleeping. b. Rising levels of corticosteroids throughout the day. c. Peak levels of ACTH and corticosteroids early in the morning. d. Hypothalamic stimulation to release CRH
Patients who have been receiving corticosteroid therapy for a prolonged period and suddenly stop the drug will experience an adrenal crisis because their adrenal glands will not be producing any adrenal hormones. Your assessment of a patient for the possibility of adrenal crisis may
A patient is started on a regimen of prednisone because of a crisis in her ulcerative colitis. Nursing care of this patient would need to include. a. Immunizations to prevent infections. b. Increased calories to deal with metabolic changes. c. Fluid restriction to decrease water
A patient who is taking corticosteroids is at increased risk for infection and should. a. Be protected from exposure to infections and invasive procedures. b. Take antiinflammatory agents regularly throughout the day. c. Receive live virus vaccine to protect him or her from
Mineralocorticoids are used to maintain electrolyte balance in situations of adrenal insufficiency. Mineralocorticoids. a. Are usually given alone. b. Can be given only IV. c. Are always given in conjunction with appropriate glucocorticoids. d. Are separate in their function
When preparing a presentation for a local parent group about vaccines, the nurse would describe vaccines as being used to stimulate a. Passive immunity to a foreign protein. b. Active immunity to a foreign protein. c. Serum sickness. d. A mild disease in healthy people.
In which situation would the nurse least likely expect to administer an immune suppressant? a. Treatment of transplant rejection b. Treatment of autoimmune disease c. Reduction of number of relapses in multiple sclerosis d. Treatment of aggressive cancers
The nurse is assigned to care for a client who is receiving immune suppressants. The nurse would continually assess the client for which of the following anticipated adverse effects? a. Development of cancers b. Increased risk of infectionc. Cardiac standstill d. Development of
The nurse would expect to administer interferon alfa-n3 (Alferon N) as the drug of choice for. a. Treatment of leukemias. b. Treatment of multiple sclerosis. c. Intralesional treatment of warts. d. Treatment of Kaposi sarcoma.
Teaching points that the nurse would incorporate into the care of a client receiving cyclosporine would include which information? a. Use barrier contraceptives to avoid pregnancy. b. If mouth sores occur, try to restrict eating as much as possible. c. Dilute the solution with milk,
Patient teaching for a patient receiving an interferon would include a. Proper use of oral contraceptives. b. Use of aspirin to control adverse effects. c. Importance of cardiovascular workouts. d. Proper methods injecting the drug.
Patients who are receiving an immune stimulant may experience any of the clinical signs of immune response activity, including. a. Flu-like symptoms. b. Diarrhea. c. Constipation. d. Headache.
Organ transplants are often rejected by the body because the T cells recognize the transplanted cells as foreign and try to destroy them. Treatment with an immune suppressant would a. Activate antibody production. b. Stimulate interleukin release. c. Stimulate thymus
You might use a monoclonal antibody in treating a. Warts. b. Herpes zoster. c. Tumors that overexpress HER2. d. Kaposi sarcoma.
A public education campaign to stress the importance of childhood immunizations should include which points? a. Prevention of potentially devastating diseases outweighs the discomfort and risks of immunization. b. Routine immunization is standard practice in the United States. c. The
After teaching a parent about common adverse effects associated with routine immunizations, which of the following, if stated by the parent, would indicate the need for additional teaching? a. Difficulty breathing and fainting b. Fever and rash c. Drowsiness and fretfulness d.
A mother brings her child to his 18-month well-baby visit. The nurse would not give the child his routine immunizations in which situations? a. He cried at his last immunization. b. He developed a fever or rash after his last immunization. c. He currently has a fever and symptoms of
Which vaccine would the nurse be least likely to recommend for a 6- month-old child? a. Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis vaccine b. Haemophilus influenzae b vaccine c. Poliovirus vaccine d. Chickenpox vaccine.
When assessing the medical record of an older adult to evaluate the status of his immunizations, the nurse would be looking for evidence of which immunizations? a. Yearly pneumococcal vaccination b. Yearly flu vaccination c. Tetanus booster every 10 years d. Tetanus booster
It is now recommended that all people over the age of 6 months should receive a flu vaccine every fall based on the understanding that the vaccine is repeated because a. The immunity wears off after a year. b. The strains of virus predicted to cause the flu change every year. c. A
The nurse reviews a patient’s record to make sure that tetanus booster shots have been given. a. Only with exposure to anaerobic bacteria. b. Every 2 years.c. Every 5 years. d. Every 10 years.
A nurse suffers a needlestick after injecting a patient with suspected hepatitis B. The nurse should a. Have repeated titers to determine whether she was exposed to hepatitis B and if she was have hepatitis immune globulin. b. Immediately receive hepatitis immune globulin and begin
A patient is to receive immune globulin after exposure to hepatitis A. The patient has a previous history of allergies to various drugs. Before giving the immune globulin, the nurse should.a. Have emergency equipment readily available. b. Premedicate the patient with aspirin. c. Make sure
The cerebellum a. Initiates voluntary muscle movement. b. Helps regulate the tone of skeletal muscles. c. If destroyed, would result in the loss of all voluntary skeletal activity. d. Contains the centers responsible for the regulation of body temperature.
In explaining the importance of a constant blood supply to the brain, the nurse would tell the student which? a. Energy is needed to maintain nerve membranes and cannot be produced without oxygen. b. Carbon dioxide must constantly be removed to maintain the proper pH. c. Little
At those regions of the nerve membrane where myelin is present, there is a. Low resistance to electrical current. b. High resistance to electrical current. c. High conductance of electrical current. d. Energy loss for the cell.
The blood–brain barrier could be described in which ways?a. It is produced by the cells that make up the meninges. b. It is regulated by the microglia in the CNS. c. It is weaker in certain parts of the brain. d. It is uniform in its permeability throughout the CNS. e. It is
The nerve synapse a. Is not resistant to electrical current. b. Cannot become exhausted. c. Has a synaptic cleft. d. Transfers information at the speed of electricity.
Which could result in the initiation of an action potential? a. Depolarizing the membrane. b. Decreasing the extracellular potassium concentration. c. Increasing the activity of the sodium–potassium active transport system.d. Stimulating the nerve with a threshold electrical
Neurotransmitters are a. Produced in the muscle to communicate with nerves. b. The chemicals used to stimulate or suppress effectors at the nerve synapse. c. Usually found in the diet. d. Nonspecific in their action on various nerves.
The limbic system is an area of the brain that a. Is responsible for coordination of movement.b. Is responsible for the special senses. c. Is responsible for the expression of emotions. d. Controls sleep.
The most primitive area of the brain, the brainstem, contains areas responsible for a. Vomiting, swallowing, respiration, arousal, and sleep. b. Learning. c. Motivation and memory. d. Taste, sight, hearing, and balance.
A clinical indication of poor blood supply to the brain, particularly to the higher levels where learning takes place, would be. a. Loss of long-term memory. b. Loss of short-term memory. c. Loss of coordinated movement. d. Insomnia.
Drugs that are best used to cause a patient to sleep are called. a. Hypnotics. b. Sedatives. c. Antiepileptics. d. Anxiolytics.
In assessing a client who is experiencing anxiety, the nurse would expect to find which conditions? a. Rapid breathing b. Rapid heart rate c. Fear and apprehension d. Constricted pupils e. Decreased abdominal sounds f. Hypotension.
The benzodiazepines are the most frequently used anxiolytic drugs because.a. They are anxiolytic at doses much lower than those needed for sedation or hypnosis. b. They can also be stimulating. c. They are more likely to cause physical dependence than older anxiolytic drugs. d. They
Your client has a long history of anxiety and has always responded well to diazepam. She has just learned that she is pregnant and feels very anxious. She would like a prescription for diazepam to get her through her early anxiety. What rationale would the nurse use in explaining why this is not
Barbiturates cause liver enzyme induction, which could lead to.a. Rapid metabolism and loss of effectiveness of other drugs metabolized by those enzymes. b. Increased bile production. c. CNS depression. d. The need to periodically lower the barbiturate dose to avoid toxicity.
A person who could benefit from an anxiolytic drug for short-term treatment of insomnia would not be prescribed a. Zolpidem. b. Zaleplon. c. Buspirone. d. Meprobamate.
Anxiolytic drugs block the awareness of and reaction to the environment. This effect would not be beneficial a. To relieve extreme fear. b. To moderate anxiety related to unknown causes. c. In treating a patient who must drive a vehicle for a living. d. In treating a patient who
Mr. Jones is the chief executive officer of a large company and has been experiencing acute anxiety attacks. His physical examination was normal, and he was diagnosed with anxiety. Considering his occupation and his need to be alert and present to large groups on a regular basis, which anxiolytic
The benzodiazepines react with a. GABA receptor sites in the RAS to cause inhibition of neural arousal. b. Norepinephrine receptor sites in the sympathetic nervous system.c. Acetylcholine receptor sites in the parasympathetic nervous system. d. Monoamine oxidase to increase
A pediatric patient is prescribed phenobarbital preoperatively to relieve anxiety and produce sedation. After giving the injection, you should assess the patient for.a. Acute Stevens-Johnson syndrome. b. Bone marrow depression. c. Paradoxical excitement. d. Withdrawal syndrome.
The biogenic amine theory of depression states that depression is a result of a. An unpleasant childhood. b. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) inhibition. c. Deficiency of NE, dopamine, or 5HT in key areas of the brain. d. Blockages within the limbic system, which controls emotions
Depression is a common affective disorder that strikes many people. In assessing a client who might be suffering from depression, the nurse would expect to find which conditions? a. Lack of energy b. Hyperactivity c. Sleep disturbances d. Libido problems e.
When teaching a patient receiving TCAs, it is important to remember that TCAs are associated with many anticholinergic adverse effects. Teaching about these drugs should include anticipation of.a. Increased libido and increased appetite. b. Polyuria and polydipsia. c. Urinary retention,
A client reports that he thinks he is taking an antidepressant, but he is not sure. In reviewing his medication history, which drugs would be considered antidepressants? a. Tetracyclic drugs b. Cholinergics c. SSRIs d. MAOIs e. Angiotensin II receptor blockers f.
Adverse effects may limit the usefulness of TCAs with some patients. Nursing interventions that could alleviate some of the unpleasant aspects of these adverse effects include. a. Always administering the drug when the patient has an empty stomach. b. Reminding the patient not to void
You might question an order for a MAOI as a first step in the treatment of depression remembering that these drugs are reserved for use in cases in which there has been no response to other agents because MAOIsa. Can cause hair loss. b. Are associated with potentially serious drug–food
Your patient is being treated for depression and is started on a regimen of fluoxetine (Prozac). She calls you 10 days after the drug therapy has started to report that nothing has changed and she wants to try a different drug. You should a. Tell her to try sertraline (Zoloft) because some
Which of the following medications is NOT indicated for obsessive– compulsive disorder, depression, and panic disorder? a. Citalopram (Celexa). b. Paroxetine (Paxil). c. Fluvoxamine (Luvox). d. Vortioxetine (Brintellix).
Venlafaxine (Effexor) is an antidepressant that might be very effective for use in patients who a. Are being treated effectively with a SSRI. b. Can tolerate multiple side effects. c. Are reliable at taking multiple daily dosings. d. Have not responded to other antidepressants
Depression is an affective disorder that is a. Always precipitated by a specific event. b. Most common in patients with head injuries. c. Characterized by overwhelming sadness, despair, and hopelessness. d. Very evident and easy to diagnose in the clinical setting.
Mental disorders are now thought to be caused by some inherent dysfunction within the brain that leads to abnormal thought processes and responses. They include a. Depression. b. Anxiety. c. Seizures. d. Schizophrenia.
Before administering lithium to a patient, the nurse should check for the concomitant use of which drugs, which could cause serious adverse effects? a. Ibuprofen b. Haloperidol c. Thiazide diuretics d. Antacids e. Ketoconazole f. Theophylline.
Antipsychotic drugs are basically. a. Serotonin reuptake inhibitors.b. Norepinephrine blockers. c. Dopamine receptor blockers. d. Acetylcholine stimulators.
Dyskinesias are a common side effect of antipsychotic drugs. Nursing interventions for the patient receiving antipsychotic drugs should include which actions? a. Positioning to decrease discomfort of dyskinesias. b. Implementing safety measures to prevent injury.c. Encouraging the patient
Adverse effects associated with antipsychotic drugs are related to the drugs’ effects on receptor sites and can include.a. Insomnia and hypertension. b. Dry mouth, hypotension, and glaucoma. c. Diarrhea and excessive urination. d. Increased sexual drive and improved concentration.
Your patient, a 6-year-old boy, is starting a regimen of methylphenidate (Ritalin) to control an attention deficit disorder. Family teaching should include which of the following? a. This drug can be shared with other family members who might seem to need it. b. This drug may cause
Antipsychotic drugs are also known as neuroleptic drugs because.a. They cause numerous neurological effects. b. They frequently cause epilepsy. c. They are also minor tranquilizers. d. They are the only drugs known to directly affect nerves.
Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (the inability to concentrate or focus on an activity) and narcolepsy (sudden episodes of sleep) are both most effectively treated with the use of. a. Neuroinhibitors. b. Dopamine receptor blockers. c. Major tranquilizers. d. CNS
Haloperidol (Haldol) is a potent antipsychotic that is associated with. a. Severe extrapyramidal effects. b. Severe hyperactivity. c. Severe hypotension. d. Severe anticholinergic effects.
Which of the following points would be most important for the nurse to stress when developing a patient teaching plan for a patient receiving antineoplastic therapy? a. The importance of keeping the head covered at extremes of temperature. b. The need to use barrier contraceptives because
Some properties of neoplastic cells are the same as the properties of normal cells, including a. Anaplasia. b. Metastasis. c. Mitosis. d. Autonomy.
Hair loss, or alopecia, is an adverse effect of many antineoplastic agents. If a client is receiving a drug that usually causes alopecia, it is important that the nurse do which?a. Warn the patient that alopecia will occur. b. Encourage the patient to arrange for an appropriate head covering
Carcinomas are tumors that originate in a. Mesenchyme. b. Bone marrow. c. Striated muscle. d. Epithelial cells.
The goal of traditional antineoplastic drug therapy is to.a. Reduce the size of abnormal cell mass for immune system destruction. b. Eradicate all of the abnormal cells that have developed. c. Destroy all cells of the originating type. d. Stimulate the immune system to destroy the
Cancer can be a difficult disease to treat because a. Cells no longer progress through the normal cell cycle. b. Cells can fail to develop resistance to drug therapy. c. Cells remain dormant, emerging months to years later. d. The exact cause of cancer is not known.
Antineoplastic drugs destroy human cells. They are most likely to cause cell death among healthy cells that a. Have poor cell membranes. b. Are rapidly turning over. c. Are in dormant tissues. d. Are across the blood–brain barrier.
Cancer treatment usually occurs in several different treatment phases. In assessing the appropriateness of another round of chemotherapy for a particular patient, the nurse would evaluate which as most important? a. Hair loss b. Bone marrow function c. Anorexia d. Heart rate.
It is important to explain to women that chemotherapeutic agents should not be used during pregnancy because a. The tendency to cause nausea and vomiting will be increased. b. Of potential serious adverse effects on the rapidly multiplying cells of the fetus. c. Bone marrow toxicity
Cancer drugs are given in combination and over a period of time because it is difficult to affect a. Slowly growing cells. b. Cells in the dormant phase of the cell cycle. c. Cells that multiply rapidly and go through the cell cycle quickly. d. Cells that have moved from their
Antibodiesa. Are carbohydrates. b. Are secreted by activated T cells. c. Are not found in circulating gamma globulins. d. Are effective only against specific antigens.
Which of the following statements could be used to describe a neutrophil? a. They possess the property of phagocytosis. b. When activated, they release a pyrogen that causes fever. c. When the body is injured, they are produced rapidly and in large numbers. d. They are not
B and T cells are similar in that they both a. Secrete antibodies. b. Play important roles in the immune response. c. Are activated in the thymus gland. d. Release cytotoxins to destroy cells.
The inflammatory response is activated whenever cell injury occurs. An inflammatory response would involve which activities? a. Activation of Hageman factor. b. Vasodilation in the area of the injury. c. Generalized edema and tumor development. d. Changes in capillary
Which of the following is not a cytokine? a. Interleukin 2 b. Antibody c. Tumor necrosis factor d. Interferon.
As part of the nonspecific defense against infection, a. Blood flow and vascular permeability to proteins increase throughout the circulatory system. b. Particles in the respiratory tract are engulfed by phagocytes. c. B cells are released from the bone marrow. d. Neutrophils
B cells respond to an initial antigen challenge by a. Reducing in size. b. Immediately producing antigen-specific antibodies. c. Producing a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell. d. Producing new cells that become plasma cells and memory cells.
Treating fevers remains a controversial subject because a. Fevers make people feel ill. b. Higher temperatures act as catalysts to many of the body’s chemical reactions. c. Higher temperatures can suppress the body’s normal metabolism.d. Higher temperatures can alter the body’s
After describing the function of T cells, the nurse would identify the need for additional teaching if the patient stated that T cells become which type of cells? a. Cytotoxic T cells b. Helper T cells c. Suppressor T cells d. Antibody-secreting T cells
Interleukins are a. Chemicals released when a virus enters a cell. b. Chemicals secreted by activated leukocytes. c. Part of the kinin system. d. Activated by arachidonic acid.
A drug could be classified as an analgesic if it a. Reduces fever. b. Reduces swelling. c. Reduces redness. d. Reduces pain.
An antipyretic is a drug that can a. Block pain. b. Block swelling. c. Block fever. d. Block inflammation.
A nurse might not see a salicylate used as an antiinflammatory if a drug was needed for its a. Antipyretic properties. b. Analgesic properties. c. OTC availability. d. Parenteral availability
Your patient has been receiving ibuprofen for many years to relieve the pain of osteoarthritis. Assessment of the patient should include a. An electrocardiogram. b. CBC with differential. c. Respiratory auscultation. d. Renal evaluation.
Patients taking NSAIDs should be taught to avoid the use of OTC medications without checking with their prescriber because a. Many of the OTC preparations contain NSAIDs, and inadvertent toxicity could occur. b. No one should take more than one type of pain reliever at a time. c.
An adult client is being treated with mebendazole for a pinworm infection. Appropriate nursing diagnoses that might apply to this patient would include.a. Disturbed personal identity related to treatment. b. Abdominal distention related to worm infestation. c. Acute pain related to GI
Which of the following would the nurse expect to assess in a patient who is suspected of having an Ascaris infection? a. Cough and signs of pulmonary infestation b. Cardiac arrhythmias and low blood pressure c. Seizures and disorientation d. Bloody diarrhea and excessive vomiting
The nurse describes schistosomiasis to a group of students as an infection caused by. a. A protozoan carried by a mosquito. b. Improperly cooked pork. c. A fluke carried by a snail. d. Eating food contaminated by fecal material.
A patient has traveled to Egypt and come home with schistosomiasis. The family is very concerned about spreading the disease. Which information would be most helpful to teach the family? a. Strict hand washing will stop the spread of the disease. b. Isolating the patient will be necessary
A patient is prescribed mebendazole. The nurse knows that this is the most commonly used anthelmintic, being the drug of choice for treating a. Pinworms, roundworms, whipworms, and hookworms. b. Trichinosis, flukes, cestodes, and hookworms. c. Pork tapeworm, threadworms, cestodes,
Patient teaching regarding the use of anthelmintics should include counseling about a. The use of oral contraceptives. b. Maintenance of nutrition during therapy. c. The use of oral anticoagulants. d. Cardiac drug effects.
Patients may experience anxiety about the diagnosis and treatment of helminthic infections. Teaching may help to alleviate this anxiety and should include. a. What they may experience if the worms are passed from the body. b. Focus on the cleanliness of the home. c. Measures to
A nurse would note that a patient had a good understanding of his antimalarial drug regimen if the patient reported, a. “I keep these pills with me at all times while I’m away and take them only when I have been bitten by a mosquito.” b. “I will need to start these pills now and
Your patient is a 32-year-old HIV-positive male being treated for Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia; he did well on a course of atovaquone and is now being discharged on pentamidine to prevent a recurrence of the infection. In preparing his teaching plan, you would need to include which? a.
A mother calls in concerned that her son, a college freshman, has been diagnosed with giardiasis. The nurse would respond to the mother’s concerns by telling her which of the following? a. You should have your son come home immediately so that he can be treated appropriately. b. This is
Drugs can be advertised in the mass media only if.a. The FDA indication is clearly stated. b. The actual use is never stated. c. Adverse effects and precautions are stated if the use is stated. d. All adverse effects are clearly stated.

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Focus On Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition Amy M. Karch - Solutions

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