Focus On Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition Amy M. Karch - Solutions

A patient with a fungal infection asks the nurse why she cannot take antibiotics. The nurse explains that the reason for this is that a fungus is resistant to antibiotics because a. A fungal cell wall has fewer but more selective protective layers. b. The composition of the fungal cell
After assessing a patient, the nurse would question an order for amphotericin B to prevent the possibility of serious nephrotoxicity if the patient was also receiving which of the following?a. Digoxin.b. Oral anticoagulants.c. Phenytoin.d. Corticosteroids.
When taking a health history, the nurse should include specific questions about the use of OTC drugs and alternative therapies. This is an important aspect of the health history because.a. Many insurance policies cover these drugs. b. Patients should be reprimanded about the use of these
Herbal treatments and alternative therapies a. Are considered drugs and regulated by the FDA. b. Are considered dietary supplements and are not regulated by the FDA. c. Have no restrictions on claims and advertising. d. Contain no drugs, only natural substances.
A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. The patient has reported that he or she frequently uses herbal remedies. Before administering any antidiabetic medications, the nurse should caution the patient about the use of which of the following herbal
The home healthcare industry is booming because a. There is a shortage of hospital beds. b. Patients feel safer at home and prefer to be cared for at home. c. Patients are going home sooner and becoming responsible for their own care sooner than in the past. d. The nursing
The cost of drug therapy is a major consideration in most areas because a. Generic drugs are always cheaper. b. The high cost of drugs combined with more fixed income consumers puts constraints on drug use. c. Pharmacies usually carry only one drug from each class. d. Patients
An off-label use of a drug means that the drug. a. Was found without a label and its actual contents are not known. b. Has been found to be safe when used as directed and no restrictions are needed. c. Is being used for an indication not listed in the approved indications noted by
The basic unit of human structure is.a. The mitochondria. b. The nucleus. c. The nucleolus. d. The cell.
The amount of time that a cell takes to progress through the cell cycle is determined by which of the following? a. The acidity of the environment b. The genetic makeup of the cell c. The location of the cell in the body d. The number of ribosomes in the cell e. The cell
The cell membrane is composed of a. A phospholipid structure. b. Channels of protein. c. A cholesterol-based membrane. d. Golgi apparatus.
Some substances will pass into the human cell by simple diffusion. Which of the following substances diffuse into the cell? a. Calcium b. Nitrogen c. Sodium d. Carbon dioxide e. Oxygen f. Potassium.
The saying, “One rotten apple can spoil the whole barrel,” can be used to refer to the cell-degrading properties of a. Calcium channels. b. Lysosomes. c. Histocompatibility receptors. d. Nuclear spindles.
Some substances require a channel or pore to enter a cell membrane. Which of the following substances use a channel to enter the cell? a. Calcium b. Urea c. Fat-soluble vitamins d. Sodium e. Oxygen f. Potassium.
The ribosomes are important sites for a. Digestion of nutrients. b. Excretion of waste products. c. Production of proteins. d. Hormone receptors.
A human cell placed in salty seawater will a. Burst from water entering the cell. b. Shrivel and die from water leaving the cell. c. Not be affected in any way. d. Break apart from the salt effect.
The sodium–potassium pump maintains a negative charge on the cell membrane by a. Osmosis. b. Diffusion. c. Active transport. d. Facilitated diffusion.
All cells progress through basically the same cell cycle, including.a. Two phases. b. Four active phases and a resting phase. c. Three periods of rest and a splitting phase. d. Four active phases.
Bacterial resistance to an antiinfective could be the result of which of the following?a. Natural or intrinsic properties of the bacteria b. Changes in cellular permeability or cellular transport systems c. The production of chemicals that antagonize the drug d. Initial exposure to
The spectrum of activity of an anti infective indicates a. The acidity of the environment in which it is most effective. b. The cell membrane type that the anti infective affects. c. The anti infective’s effectiveness against different invading organisms. d. The resistance
Antiinfective drugs destroy cells that have invaded the body. They do not specifically destroy only the cell of the invader, and because of this, many adverse effects can be anticipated when an antiinfective is used. Which of the following adverse effects are often associated with antiinfective
The emergence of resistant strains of microbes is a serious public health problem. Healthcare providers can work to prevent the emergence of resistant strains by.a. Encouraging the patient to stop the antibiotic as soon as the symptoms are resolved to prevent overexposure to the drug. b.
Sensitivity testing of a culture shows. a. Drugs that are capable of controlling that particular microorganism. b. The patient’s potential for allergic reactions to a drug. c. The offending microorganism. d. An immune reaction to the infecting organism.
Combination therapy is often used in treating infections. An important consideration for using combination therapy would be that.a. It is cheaper to use two drugs in one tablet than one drug alone. b. Most infections are caused by multiple organisms. c. The combination of drugs can delay
An example of an antiinfective used as a means of prophylaxis would be. a. Amoxicillin used for tonsillitis. b. Penicillin used to treat an abscess. c. An antibiotic used before dental surgery. d. Co-trimoxazole used for a bladder infection.
A broad-spectrum antibiotic would be the drug of choice when.a. The patient has many known allergies. b. One is waiting for culture and sensitivity results. c. The infection is caused by one specific bacterium. d. Treatment is being given for an upper respiratory infection of unknown
A bacteriostatic substance is one that a. Directly kills any bacteria it comes in contact with. b. Directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to the substance. c. Prevents the growth of any bacteria. d. Prevents the growth of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the
A young woman is found to have a soft-tissue infection that is most responsive to tetracycline. Your teaching plan for this woman should include which of the following points? a. Tetracycline can cause gray baby syndrome. b. Do not use this drug if you are pregnant because it can cause
Gram-negative bacteria.a. Are mostly found in the respiratory tract. b. Are mostly associated with soft tissue infections. c. Are mostly found in the GI and GU tracts. d. Accept a positive stain when tested.
In general, all patients receiving antibiotics should receive teaching that includes which of the following points? a. The need to complete the full course of drug therapy. b. The possibility of oral contraceptive failure. c. When to take the drug related to food and other
Antibiotics that are used together to increase their effectiveness and limit the associated adverse effects are said to be a. Broad spectrum. b. Synergistic. c. Bactericidal. d. Anaerobic.
An aminoglycoside antibiotic might be the drug of choice in treating. a. Serious infections caused by susceptible strains of Gram-negative bacteria. b. Otitis media in an infant. c. Cystitis in a woman who is 4 months pregnant. d. Suspected pneumonia before the culture results
Which of the following is not a caution for the use of cephalosporins? a. Allergy to penicillin b. Renal failure c. Allergy to aspirin d. Concurrent treatment with aminoglycosides
The fluoroquinolones a. Are found freely in nature. b. Are associated with severe adverse reactions. c. Are widely used to treat Gram-positive infections. d. Are broad-spectrum antibiotics with few associated adverse effects.
Cipro, a widely used antibiotic, is an example of a. A penicillin. b. A fluoroquinolone. c. An aminoglycoside.d. A macrolide antibiotic.
A patient receiving a fluoroquinolone should be cautioned to anticipate a. Increased salivation. b. Constipation. c. Photosensitivity. d. Cough.
The goal of antibiotic therapy is.a. To eradicate all bacteria from the system. b. To suppress resistant strains of bacteria. c. To reduce the number of invading bacteria so that the immune system can deal with the infection. d. To stop the drug as soon as the patient feels better.
The penicillins.a. Are bacteriostatic. b. Are bactericidal, interfering with bacteria cell walls. c. Are effective only if given intravenously. d. Do not produce cross-sensitivity within their class.
In assessing a patient, a viral cause might be suspected if the patient was diagnosed with.a. Tuberculosis. b. Leprosy. c. The common cold. d. Gonorrhea.
When explaining to a client the reasoning behind using combination therapy in the treatment of HIV, the nurse would include which of the following points?a. The virus can remain dormant within the T cell for a very long time; it can mutate while in the T cell.b. Adverse effects of many of the drugs
Virus infections have proved difficult to treat because they a. Have a protein coat. b. Inject themselves into human cells to survive and to reproduce. c. Are bits of RNA or DNA. d. Easily resist drug therapy.
Naturally occurring substances that are released in the body in response to viral invasion are called a. Antibodies. b. Immunoglobulins. c. Interferons. d. Interleukins.
Herpes viruses cause a broad range of conditions but have not been identified as the causative agent in a. Cold sores. b. Shingles. c. Genital infections. d. Leprosy.
Which of the following would be an important teaching point for the patient receiving an agent to treat herpes virus or CMV? a. Stop taking the drug as soon as the lesions have disappeared. b. Sexual intercourse is fine—as long as you are taking the drug, you are not contagious.c. Drink
HIV selectively enters which of the following cells? a. B clones b. Helper T cells c. Suppressor T cells d. Cytotoxic T cells
Nursing interventions for the patient receiving antiviral drugs for the treatment of HIV probably would include a. Monitoring renal and hepatic function periodically during therapy. b. Administering the drugs just once a day to increase drug effectiveness. c. Encouraging the patient
Locally active antiviral agents can be used to treat.a. HIV infection. b. Warts. c. RSV. d. CMV systemic infections.
When administering a systemic antifungal, the nurse would include which of the following in the patient’s plan of care? a. Ensuring that a culture of the affected area had been done b. Having the patient swallow the troche used for oral Candida infections c. Ensuring that the
The nurse would include which of the following in a teaching plan for a patient who is receiving an oral antifungal drug? a. It is important that you complete the full course of your drug therapy. b. You can share this drug with other family members if they develop the same
When administering a systemic antifungal agent, the nurse incorporates understanding that all systemic antifungal drugs function to.a. Break apart the fungus nucleus. b. Interfere with fungus DNA production. c. Alter cell permeability of the fungus, leading to cell death. d. Prevent
The nurse is describing fungi that cause infections of the skin and mucous membranes, appropriately calling these which of the following? a. Mycoses. b. Meningeal fungi.c. Dermatophytes d. Worms.
After teaching a group of students about topical fungal infections, the instructor determines that the students need additional instruction when they identify which of the following as an example? a. Athlete’s foot b. Rocky Mountain spotted fever c. Jock itch d. Vaginal yeast
Which of the following would the nurse recommend that a woman with repeated vaginal yeast infections keep on hand? a. Tolnaftate b. Butenafine c. Clotrimazole d. Naftifine.
A patient with a severe case of athlete’s foot is seen with lesions between the toes, which are oozing blood and serum. After teaching the patient, the nurse determines that the instruction was effective if the patient states which of the following? a. “I have to wear black socks and must
After a group of students is taught about protozoal infections, which infection, if stated by the group as caused by an insect bite, would indicate the need for additional teaching? a. Malaria b. Trypanosomiasis c. Leishmaniasis d. Giardiasis.
When describing the development of malaria caused by the Plasmodium protozoan the instructor would explain that the organism depends on.a. A snail to act as intermediary in the life cycle of the protozoan. b. A mosquito and a red blood cell for maturation. c. A human liver cell for cell
A patient who is receiving a combination drug to treat malaria asks the nurse why. The nurse responds to the patient based on the understanding that combination drugs are a. Associated with a much lower degree of toxicity when used in combination. b. Absorbed more completely when
A patient traveling to an area of the world where malaria is known to be endemic should be taught toa. Avoid drinking the water. b. Begin prophylactic antimalarial therapy before traveling and continue it through the visit and for 4 weeks after the visit. c. Take a supply of antimalarial
Amebiasis or amebic dysentery.a. Is seen only in Third World countries. b. Is caused by a protozoan that enters the body through an insect bite. c. Is caused by a protozoan that can enter the body in the cyst stage in water or food. d. Usually has no signs and symptoms.
Giardiasis is the most common intestinal parasite seen in the United States, and ita. Does not respond to drug therapy. b. Can invade the liver and cause death. c. Is seen only in areas with no sanitation. d. Is associated with rotten egg–smelling stool, diarrhea, and mucus-filled
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia is. a. An endemic fungus found in the human respiratory system. b. Responsive to inhaled pentamidine. c. An opportunistic bacterial infection. d. Frequently associated with children in day care settings.
Trypanosomiasis may assume which of the following two different forms? a. African sleeping sickness and Chagas disease b. Elephantiasis and malaria c. Dysentery and African sleeping sickness d. Malaria and Chagas disease.
Appropriate nursing diagnoses related to drug therapy for a patient receiving combination antiviral therapy for the treatment of HIV infection would include the following: a. Disturbed sensory perception (kinesthetic) related to the CNS effects of the drugs b. Imbalanced nutrition: More
What teaching points need to be clarified?Clinically significant drug–drug interactions occur with drugs that have small margins of safety. If there is very little difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose of the drug, interference with the drug’s pharmacokinetics or
When teaching a patient about OTC drugs, which points should the nurse include? a. These drugs are very safe and can be used freely to relieve your complaints. b. These compounds are called drugs, but they aren’t really drugs. c. Many of these drugs were once prescription drugs but
Clinical pharmacology is the study of. a. The biological effects of chemicals. b. Drugs used to treat, prevent, or diagnose disease.c. Plant components that can be used as medicines. d. Binders and other vehicles for delivering medication.
A patient asks what generic drugs are and if he should be using them to treat his infection. Which of the following statements should be included in the nurse’s explanation? a. A generic drug is a drug that is sold by the name of the ingredient, not the brand name. b. Generic drugs are
Phase I drug studies involve a. The use of laboratory animals to test chemicals. b. Patients with the disease the drug is designed to treat. c. Mass marketing surveys of drug effects in large numbers of people. d. Healthy human volunteers who are often paid for their
The generic name of a drug is a. The name assigned to the drug by the pharmaceutical company developing it.b. The chemical name of the drug based on its chemical structure. c. The original name assigned to the drug at the beginning of the evaluation process. d. The name that is often
An orphan drug is a drug that.a. Has failed to go through the approval process. b. Is available in a foreign country but not in this country. c. Has been tested but is not considered to be financially viable. d. Is available without a prescription.
The FDA pregnancy categories were used.a. To indicate a drug’s potential or actual teratogenic effects. b. For research purposes only. c. To list drugs that are more likely to have addicting properties. d. To follow regulations set by the DEA.
The storing, prescribing, and distributing of controlled substances— drugs that are more apt to be addictive—are monitored by.a. The FDA. b. The Department of Commerce.c. The Federal Bureau of Investigation. d. The DEA.
Healthy young women are sometimes not able to be involved in phase I studies of drugs because. a. Male bodies are more predictable and responsive to chemicals. b. Females are more apt to suffer problems with ova, which are formed only before birth. c. Males can tolerate the unknown
A patient has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for several years, but when picking up the prescription this month found that the tablets looked different and became concerned. The nurse, checking with the pharmacist, found that fluoxetine had just become available in the generic form and the
Chemotherapeutic agents are drugs that a. Are used only to treat cancers. b. Replace normal body chemicals that are missing because of disease. c. Interfere with foreign cell functioning causing cell death, such as invading microorganisms or neoplasms. d. Stimulate the normal
When reviewing a drug to be given, the nurse notes that the drug is excreted in the urine. What points should be included in the nurse’s assessment of the patient? a. The patient’s liver function tests. b. The patient’s bladder tone. c. The patient’s renal function tests.d.
What are the effects of this drug and what issues should be considered? Clinically significant drug–drug interactions occur with drugs that have small margins of safety. If there is very little difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose of the drug, interference with the
Receptor sites.a. Are a normal part of enzyme substrates. b. Are protein areas on cell membranes that react with specific chemicals. c. Can usually be stimulated by many different chemicals. d. Are responsible for all drug effects in the body.
When considering the pharmacokinetics of a drug, what points would the nurse need to consider?a. How the drug will be absorbed. b. The way the drug affects the body. c. Receptor site activation and suppression. d. How the drug will be excreted e. How the drug will be
What specific issues should be discussed?Clinically significant drug–drug interactions occur with drugs that have small margins of safety. If there is very little difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose of the drug, interference with the drug’s pharmacokinetics or
Selective toxicity is.a. The ability of a drug to seek out a specific bacterial species or microorganism. b. The ability of a drug to cause only specific adverse effects. c. The ability of a drug to cause fetal damage. d. The ability of a drug to attack only those systems found in
Drug–drug interactions are important considerations in clinical practice. When evaluating a patient for potential drug–drug interactions, what would the nurse expect to address?a. Bizarre drug effects on the body. b. The need to adjust drug dose or timing of administration. c. The
When trying to determine why the desired therapeutic effect is not being seen with an oral drug, the nurse should consider. a. The blood flow to muscle beds. b. Food altering the makeup of gastric juices. c. The weight of the patient. d. The temperature of the peripheral
Much of the biotransformation that occurs when a drug is taken occurs as part of.a. The protein-binding effect of the drug. b. The functioning of the renal system. c. The first-pass effect through the liver. d. The distribution of the drug to the reactive tissues.
The half-life of a drug. a. Is determined by a balance of all pharmacokinetic processes. b. Is a constant factor for all drugs taken by a patient. c. Is only influenced by the fat distribution of the patient. d. Can be calculated with the use of a body surface nomogram.
J.B. has Parkinson disease that has been controlled for several years with levodopa. After he begins a health food regimen with lots of vitamin B6, his tremors return, and he develops a rapid heart rate, hypertension, and anxiety. The nurse investigating the problem discovers that vitamin B6 can
An example of a drug allergy is.a. Dry mouth occurring with use of an antihistamine. b. Increased urination occurring with use of a thiazide diuretic. c. Breathing difficulty after an injection of penicillin. d. Urinary retention associated with atropine use.
A patient is taking a drug that is known to be toxic to the liver. The patient is being discharged to home. What teaching points related to liver toxicity and the drug should the nurse teach the patient to report to the physician? a. Fever; changes in the color of urine.b. Changes in the color
A patient taking glyburide (an antidiabetic drug) has his morning dose and then does not have a chance to eat for several hours. An adverse effect that might be expected from this would be a. A teratogenic effect. b. A skin rash. c. An anticholinergic effect. d. Hypoglycemia.
Pregnant women should be advised of the potential risk to the fetus any time they take a drug during pregnancy. What fetal problems can be related to drug exposure in utero?a. Fetal death. b. Nervous system disruption. c. Skeletal and limb abnormalities. d. Cardiac defects. e.
A patient with a severe infection is given gentamicin, the only antibiotic shown to be effective in culture and sensitivity tests. A few hours after the drug is started intravenously, the patient becomes very restless and develops edema. Blood tests reveal abnormal electrolytes and elevated blood
A client is experiencing a reaction to the penicillin injection that the nurse administered approximately ½ hour ago. The nurse is concerned that it might be an anaphylactic reaction. What signs and symptoms would validate her suspicion? a. Rapid heart rate b. Diaphoresis c.
Patients receiving antineoplastic drugs that disrupt cell function often have adverse effects involving cells that turn over rapidly in the body. These cells include.a. Ovarian cells. b. Liver cells. c. Cardiac cells. d. Bone marrow cells.
A client is experiencing a serum sickness reaction to a recent rubella vaccination. Which of the following interventions would be appropriate when caring for this client?a. Administration of epinephrine b. Cool environment c. Positioning to provide comfort d. Ice to joints as
A woman has had repeated bouts of bronchitis throughout the fall and has been taking antibiotics. She calls the clinic with complaints of vaginal pain and itching. When she is seen, it is discovered that she has developed a yeast infection. You understand that a. Her bronchitis has moved to
Knowing that a patient is taking a loop diuretic and is at risk for developing hypokalemia, the nurse would assess the patient for.a. Hypertension, headache, and cold and clammy skin. b. Decreased urinary output and yellowing of the sclera. c. Weak pulse, low blood pressure, and muscle
A patient reports that she has a drug allergy. In exploring the allergic reaction with the patient, which of the following might indicate an allergic response? a. Increased urination b. Dry mouth c. Rash d. Drowsiness.
A client is being started on a laxative regimen. Before administering the medication, the nurse should perform which of the following processes? a. Assessing for allergies b. Evaluating the medication effectiveness c. Evaluating the route of administration d. Diagnosing the
The nurse obtains a medical history from a patient before beginning drug therapy based on an understanding of which of the following? a. Medical conditions can alter a drug’s pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics. b. A medical history is a key component of any nursing protocol. c.
The nursing care of a patient receiving drug therapy should include measures to decrease the anticipated adverse effects of the drug. Which of the following measures would a nurse consider? a. A positive approach b. Environmental temperature control. c. Safety measures. d. Skin

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Focus On Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition Amy M. Karch - Solutions

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