Focus On Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition Amy M. Karch - Solutions

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A patient taking a behind-the-counter cold medication and a behind the-counter allergy medicine is found to be taking double doses of pseudoephedrine. As a result, the patient might exhibit a. Ear pain and eye redness. b. Restlessness and palpitations. c. Sinus pressure and ear
A woman develops ova, or eggs, a. Continually until menopause. b. During fetal life. c. Until menopause. d. Starting with puberty.
A group of students are reviewing material in preparation for an examination on the sex hormones. If identified by the students as effects of testosterone, which demonstrate understanding of the information? a. Thickening of skin and vocal cords b. Development of a wide and flat
Control of the female sex hormones starts with the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus. Because of this, the cycling of these hormones may be influenced by a. Body temperature. b. Stress or emotional problems. c. Age. d. Androgen release.
The rhythm method of birth control depends on the effects of progesterone. a. To increase uterine motility. b. To decrease and thicken cervical secretions. c. To elevate body temperature. d. To depress appetite.
The menstrual cycle a. Always repeats itself every 28 days. b. Is associated with changing hormone levels. c. Is necessary for a human sexual response. d. Cannot occur if ovulation does not occur.
In the male reproductive system, a. The seminiferous tubules produce sperm and testosterone. b. The interstitial cells produce sperm. c. The seminiferous tubules produce sperm and the interstitial cells produce testosterone. d. The interstitial cells produce sperm and
Spring fever occurs as a result of increased light. In males, this increase in light causes an increase in the production of a. Inhibin. b. Adrenal androgens. c. Estrogen. d. Testosterone.
The human sexual response depends on stimulation of a. The sympathetic nervous system. b. The parasympathetic nervous system. c. The hypothalamic sex drive center. d. Adrenal androgens.
A postmenopausal woman is to receive short-term HRT to control her menopausal symptoms. Which adverse effect would the nurse include in the patient teaching about this therapy? a. Constipation b. Breakthrough bleeding c. Weight loss d. Persistently elevated body temperature
Estrogens produce a wide variety of systemic effects. Effects attributed to estrogen include a. Protecting the heart from atherosclerosis. b. Retaining calcium in the bones. c. Maintaining the secondary female sex characteristics. d. Rlaxing the gravid uterus to prolong
An estrogen receptor modulator might be the drug of choice in the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis in a patient with a family history of breast or uterine cancer. The nurse would instruct the patient that she might experience which side effects? a. Constipation and dry, itchy
A client is taking clomiphene after 6 years of inability to conceive a child. The client will need to be informed about which? a. The need for a complete physical and pelvic examination before each course of drug therapy. b. The risks and hazards of multiple births. c. The importance
Combination estrogens and progestins are commonly used as OCs. It is thought that this combination has its effect by.a. Acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle development. b. Directly suppressing the ovaries and preventing ovulation. c. Keeping the endometrium
A client is receiving an oxytocic drug to stimulate labor. The nursing care of this client would include which? a. Monitoring of fetal heart rate during labor b. Regulation of drug delivery between contractions c. Administration of blood pressure–lowering drugs to balance
Any patient who is taking estrogens, progestins, or combination products should be cautioned to avoid smoking because. a. Nicotine increases the metabolism of the hormones, making them less effective. b. The risk for potentially dangerous thromboembolic episodes increases. c.
Oxytocin, a synthetic form of the hypothalamic hormone, is used to.a. Induce abortion via uterine expulsion. b. Stimulate milk letdown in the lactating woman. c. Increase fertility and the chance of conception. d. Relax the gravid uterus to prevent preterm labor.
The use of an abortifacient drug is contraindicated in a woman a. Who is 15 weeks pregnant. b. Who is older than 50 years of age. c. Who has a history of four previous cesarean births. d. Who is 10 weeks pregnant.
A young woman chooses OCs because she feels that it is not the right time for her to get pregnant. You would evaluate her teaching about the drug to be effective if she makes which statement? a. “I shouldn’t smoke for the first month to make sure I don’t react severely to the
Testosterone is approved for use in a. The treatment of breast cancers. b. Increasing muscle strength in athletes. c. Oral contraceptives. d. Increasing hair distribution in male pattern baldness.
In assessing a client for androgenic effects, you would expect to find which conditions? a. Hirsutism b. Deepening of the voice c. Testicular enlargement d. Acne e. Elevated body temperature f. Sudden growth
Illegal use of large quantities of unprescribed anabolic steroids to enhance athletic performance has been associated with a. Increased sexual prowess. b. Muscle rupture from overexpansion. c. Development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. d. Cardiomyopathy and liver
A child treated with anabolic steroids because of anemia associated with renal disease will need.a. Early sex education classes because of the effects of the drug. b. X-rays of the long bones every 3 to 6 months so the drug can be stopped when the bone size is appropriate to the child’s
Anabolic steroids would be indicated for the treatment of a. Hair loss. b. Angioedema. c. Debilitation and severe weight loss. d. Breast cancers in males.
What cause of erectile penile dysfunction is treated with PDE5 inhibitors? a. Problems with childhood authority figures prevent a male erection. b. The corpus cavernosum does not fill with blood to allow for penile erection. c. The sympathetic nervous system fails to
A potentially deadly drug–drug interaction can occur if a PDE5 inhibitor (sildenafil, avanafil, tadalafil, or vardenafil) is combined with a. Corticosteroids. b. Oral contraceptives. c. Organic nitrates. d. Halothane anesthetics.
A female may be prescribed an androgen for which diagnosis?a. Breast cancer b. Infertility c. Pain during intercourse d. Females are never prescribed androgens.
Men taking alprostadil for treatment of erectile dysfunction must a. Take the drug orally about 1 hour before anticipated intercourse. b. Arrange for sexual stimulation to promote erection. c. Learn to inject the drug directly into the penis. d. Avoid the use of nitrates for
Viagra is known to a. Cause unexpected and enlarged erections. b. Make a person young and agile. c. Promote interpersonal relationships between partners. d. Increase nitrous oxide levels in the corpus cavernosum, causing vascular relaxation and promoting blood flow into the
When describing heart valves to a group of students, would the instructor include? a. The closing of the AV valves is what is solely responsible for heart sounds. b. Small muscles attached to the AV valves are responsible for opening and closing the valves. c. The aortic valve opens
During diastole, which would occur? a. Opening of the AV valves b. Relaxation of the myocardial muscle c. Flow of blood from the atria to the ventricles d. Contraction of the ventricles e. Closing of the semilunar valves f. Filling of the coronary arteries
In the heart, a. The ventricles will not contract unless they are stimulated by action potentials arising from the SA node. b. Fibrillation of the atria will cause blood pressure to fall to zero. c. Spontaneous depolarization of the muscle membrane can occur in the absence of nerve
The sympathetic nervous system would be expected to have which effects? a. Stimulates the heart to beat faster b. Speeds conduction through the AV node c. Causes the heart muscle to contract harder d. Slows conduction through the AV node e. Decreases overall vascular
The activity of the heart depends on both the inherent properties of the cardiac muscle cells and the activity of the autonomic nerves to the heart. Therefore, a. Cutting all of the autonomic nerves to the heart produces a decrease in resting heart rate. b. Blocking the parasympathetic
A heart transplantation patient has no nerve connections to the transplanted heart. In such an individual, one would expect to find a. A slower-than-normal resting heart rate. b. Atria that contract at a different rate than ventricles. c. An increase in heart rate during emotional
Which is correct regarding the cardiac cycle? a. Blood that has a high amount of oxygen enters the left atrium. b. Blood that has a high amount of oxygen enters the right ventricle. c. The highest pressure is found in the right ventricle of the heart. d. The mitral valve allows
Cardiac cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in that a. They contain actin and myosin. b. They possess automaticity and conductivity. c. Calcium must be present for muscle contraction to occur. d. They do not require oxygen to survive.
Clinically, dysrhythmias, or arrhythmias, may cause a. Altered cardiac output that could affect all cells. b. Changes in capillary filling pressures. c. Alterations in osmotic pressure. d. Valvular dysfunction.
A client is brought to the emergency room with a suspected myocardial infarction. The client is upset because he had just had an ECG in his doctor’s office and it was fine. The explanation of this common phenomenon would include the fact that a. The ECG only reflects changes in cardiac
Blood flow to the myocardium differs from blood flow to the rest of the cells of the body in that a. Blood perfuses the myocardium during systole. b. Blood flow is determined by many local factors, including buildup of acid. c. Blood perfuses the myocardium during diastole. d.
Baroreceptors are the most important factor in controlling fast changes in BP. Baroreceptors a. Are evenly distributed throughout the body to maintain pressure in the system. b. Sense pressure and immediately send that information to the medulla in the brain. c. Are directly
Pressure within the vascular system is determined by which? a. Peripheral resistance b. Stroke volume c. Sodium load d. Heart rate e. Total intravascular volume f. Rate of erythropoietin release
Essential hypertension is the most commonly diagnosed form of high BP. Essential hypertension is a. Caused by a tumor in the adrenal gland. b. Associated with no known cause. c. Related to renal disease.d. Caused by liver dysfunction.
The renin–angiotensin system is associated with which? a. Intense vasoconstriction and BP elevation b. Blood flow through the kidneys c. Production of surfactant in the lungs d. Release of aldosterone from the adrenal cortex e. Retention of sodium and water in the
Hypertension is associated with a. Loss of vision. b. Strokes. c. Atherosclerosis. d. All of the above.
The stepped-care approach to the treatment of hypertension includes a. Lifestyle modification, including exercise, diet, and decreased smoking and alcohol intake. b. Use of a diuretic, beta-blocker, or ACE inhibitor to supplement lifestyle changes. c. A combination of
ACE inhibitors work on the renin–angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Because this blocking occurs in the cells in the lung, which is usually the site of this conversion, the use of ACE inhibitors often results in a. Spontaneous
A client taking an ACE inhibitor is scheduled for surgery. Because this medication may be dangerous in the setting of general anesthesia, the nurse should a. Stop the drug without discussing with the providers. b. Alert the provider caring for the patient, and mark the client’s chart
A patient who is hypertensive becomes pregnant. Which is the safest medication for this patient? a. An angiotensin II receptor blocker b. An ACE inhibitor c. A beta-blocker d. A calcium-channel blocker
Droxidopa, an antihypotensive drug, should be used a. Only with patients who are confined to bed. b. In the treatment of acute shock. c. In patients with known pheochromocytoma. d. To treat orthostatic hypotension in patients whose lives are impaired by the disorder.
A nurse assessing a patient with HF would expect to find a. Cardiac arrest. b. Congestion of blood vessels. c. An MI. d. A pulmonary embolism.
HF occurs when the heart fails to pump effectively. Which could cause HF? a. Coronary artery disease b. Chronic hypertension c. Cardiomyopathy d. Fluid overload e. Pneumonia f. Cirrhosis
Calcium is needed in the cardiac muscle a. To break apart actin–myosin bridges. b. To activate troponin. c. To promote contraction via sliding. d. To maintain the electrical rhythm.
A client develops left-sided HF after an MI. Which would the nurse expect to find during the client assessment? a. Orthopnea b. Polyuria c. Tachypnea d. Dyspnea e. Blood-tinged sputum f. Swollen ankles
When assessing a patient with right-sided HF, the nurse would expect to find edema a. In gravity-dependent areas. b. In the hands and fingers. c. Around the eyes. d. When the patient is lying down.
ACE inhibitors and other vasodilators are used in the early treatment of HF. They act to a. Decrease workload on the heart by lowering preload and afterload. b. Increase arterial pressure and perfusion. c. Cause pooling of the blood and decreased venous return to the heart. d.
A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed cardiac glycoside to a patient based on the understanding that this group of drugs acts in which way? a. They block the sympathetic nervous system. b. They block the renin–angiotensin system. c. They block the parasympathetic
A nurse would instruct a patient taking Lanoxin (digoxin) for the treatment of HF to take which action? a. Make up any missed doses the next day. b. Report changes in heart rate. c. Avoid exposure to the sun. d. Switch to generic tablets if less expensive.
A nurse is about to administer Lanoxin to a patient whose apical pulse is 48 beats/min. He or she should a. Administer the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is low. b. Retake the pulse in 15 minutes and give the drug if the pulse has not changed. c. Retake the pulse
How does ivabradine (Corlanor) work in the body? a. Blocks beta-receptors to slow the heart rate b. Slows influx of calcium to decrease force of contraction c. Slows influx of calcium and relaxes blood vessels d. Reduces heart rate by inhibiting action potentials at the SA node.
Cardiac contraction and relaxation are controlled by a. A specific area in the brain. b. The sympathetic nervous system. c. The autonomic nervous system. d. Action potential and electrical conduction arising within the heart.
The conduction system of the heart includes which structures? a. The SA node b. The sinuses of Valsalva c. The atrial bundles d. The Purkinje fibers e. The coronary sinus f. The bundle of His.
Antiarrhythmic drugs alter the action potential of the cardiac cells. Because they alter the action potential, antiarrhythmic drugs often a. Cause HF. b. Alter blood flow to the kidney. c. Cause new arrhythmias. d. Cause electrolyte disturbances
Arrhythmias or dysrhythmias can be caused by which situations? a. Lack of oxygen to the heart muscle cells. b. Acidosis near a cell. c. Structural damage in the conduction pathway through the heart. d. Vasodilation in the myocardial vascular bed. e. Thyroid hormone
Lidocaine is a class Ib antiarrhythmic. Which is correct regarding its mechanism of action? a. It primarily blocks potassium influx. b. It primarily blocks beta receptors. c. It primarily blocks calcium influx. d. It primarily blocks sodium influx.
Ibutilide (Corvert) is a class III antiarrhythmic drug that is used for.a. Sedation during electrocardioversion. b. Conversion of recent-onset AF and flutter. c. Treatment of life-threatening ventricular arrhythmias. d. Treatment of arrhythmias complicated by HF.
The drug of choice for the treatment of a supraventricular tachycardia associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a. Digoxin. b. Verapamil. c. Lidocaine. d. Adenosine.
A patient who is receiving an antiarrhythmic drug needs a. Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilized. b. Frequent blood tests, including drug levels. c. An antidepressant to deal with psychological depression. d. Dietary changes to prevent irritation of the heart muscle.
A client stabilized on quinidine for the regulation of AF would be cautioned to avoid which foods? a. Potassium-rich foods b. Foods containing tyrosine c. High-sodium–containing foods d. Foods that alkalinize the urine
A patient is brought into the emergency room with a potentially life-threatening ventricular arrhythmia. Immediate treatment might include a. A loading dose of digoxin. b. Injection of quinidine. c. Bolus and titrated doses of lidocaine.d. Loading dose of propafenone.
Coronary artery disease results in a. An imbalance in cardiac muscle oxygen supply and demand. b. Delivery of blood to the heart muscle during systole. c. Increased pulse pressure. d. A decreased workload on the heart.
Treating angina involves modifying factors that could decrease myocardial oxygen consumption. It could be expected that this might include a. Weight loss. b. Use of nitrates. c. Use of angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors. d. Activity modification. e. Use of a
Angina a. Causes death of heart muscle cells. b. Is pain due to lack of oxygen to myocardial cells. c. Cannot occur at rest.d. Is not treatable.
An acute myocardial infarction is usually associated with which conditions? a. Permanent injury to the heart muscle b. Potentially serious arrhythmias c. Pain. d. The development of hypertension e. Loss of consciousness. f. A feeling of anxiety.
Nitrates are commonly used antianginal drugs that act to a. Increase the preload on the heart. b. Increase the afterload on the heart. c. Dilate coronary vessels to increase the delivery of oxygen through those vessels.d. Decrease venous return to the heart, decreasing the myocardial
When describing the action of antianginal drugs to a patient, which would the nurse include? a. Decrease the workload on the heart b. Increase the supply of oxygen to the heart c. Change the metabolic pathway in the heart muscle to remove the need for oxygen d. Restore the
Calcium channel blockers are effective in treating angina because they a. Prevent any CV exercise, preventing strain on the heart. b. Block strong muscle contractions, causing vasodilation. c. Alter the electrolyte balance of the heart, preventing arrhythmias. d. Increase the
A client who has nitroglycerin to avert an acute anginal attack would need to be taught. a. To take five or six tablets and then seek medical help if no relief occurs. b. To buy the tablets in bulk to decrease the cost. c. To protect tablets from light and humidity. d. To store
A nurse would question an order for which drug if the patient was also receiving verapamil? a. Oral contraceptives b. Cyclosporine c. Digoxin d. Barbiturate anesthetics
Prinzmetal angina occurs as a result of a. Electrolyte imbalance. b. A spasm of a coronary vessel. c. Decreased venous return to the heart. d. A ventricular arrhythmia.
Which way that the body uses cholesterol stated by a community group indicates that the group has understood teaching about cholesterol? a. The production of water-soluble vitamins b. The formation of steroid hormones c. The mineralization of bones d. The development of dental
A bile acid sequestrant is the drug of choice for a client who has which conditions? a. A high LDL concentration b. A high triglyceride concentration c. Biliary obstruction d. Vitamin K deficiency e. A high HDL concentration f. Intolerance to statins
The formation of atheromas in blood vessels precedes the signs and symptoms of.a. Hepatitis. b. CAD. c. Diabetes mellitus. d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Teaching a client who is prescribed an HMG–CoA reductase inhibitor to treat high cholesterol and high lipid levels should include which information? a. The importance of exercise. b. The need for dietary changes to alter cholesterol levels c. That taking a statin will allow a full,
Hyperlipidemia is considered to be a. A normal finding in adult males. b. Related to stress levels. c. A treatable CAD risk factor. d. A side effect of cigarette smoking.
The bile acid sequestrants a. Are absorbed into the liver. b. Take several weeks to show an effect. c. Have no associated adverse effects. d. Prevent bile salts from being reabsorbed.
Which would the nurse include when teaching a patient about HMG–CoA reductase inhibitors?a. The patient will not have a heart attack. b. The patient will not develop CAD. c. The patient might develop cataracts as a result. d. The patient might stop absorbing fat-soluble vitamins.
HMG–CoA reductase inhibitors work in the a. Process of bile secretion. b. Process of cholesterol formation in the cell. c. Intestinal wall to block fat absorption. d. Kidney to block fat excretion.
Which would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe for a patient who has high lipid levels and cannot take fibrates or HMG–CoA reductase inhibitors? a. Nicotine b. Vitamin C c. PCSK9 inhibitor d. Nitrates
Which would alert the nurse to suspect that a patient receiving HMG–CoA reductase inhibitors is developing rhabdomyolysis?a. Flatulence and abdominal bloating b. Increased bleeding and bruising c. The development of cataracts and blurred vision d. Muscle pain and weakness.
Blood coagulation is a complex reaction that involves a. Vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and plasminogen action. b. Vasodilation, platelet aggregation, and activation of the clotting cascade. c. Vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and conversion of prothrombin to
Hageman factor is known to activate which? a. The clotting cascade b. The anticlotting process c. The inflammatory response d. Platelet aggregation e. Thromboxane A2 f. Troponin coupling.
Warfarin, an oral anticoagulant, acts a. To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. b. To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver. c. As a catalyst in the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. d. Immediately, so it is the drug of
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin, a clot-dissolving substance, by which? a. Nicotine b. Hageman factor c. Tenecteplase d. Pyrogens e. Thrombin f. Christmas factor.
Heparin reacts to prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Heparin. a. Is available in oral and parenteral forms. b. Takes about 72 hours to have a therapeutic effect. c. Has its effects reversed with the administration of protamine sulfate. d. Has its effects reversed
Antiplatelet drugs block the aggregation of platelets and keep vessels open. These drugs would be useful in which circumstances? a. Maintaining the patency of grafts b. Decreasing the risk of fatal MI c. Preventing reinfarction after MI d. Dissolving a PE and improving
The low-molecular-weight heparin of choice for preventing DVT after hip replacement therapy is a. Heparin. b. Betrixaban. c. Fondaparinux. d. Enoxaparin.
Evaluating a client who is taking an anticoagulant for blood loss would usually include assessing for which conditions? a. The presence of petechiae b. Bleeding gums while brushing the teeth c. Dark-colored urine d. Yellow color to the sclera or skin e. The presence of
A thrombolytic agent would be most indicated for which circumstance?a. CVA within the last 2 months. b. Acute MI within the last 3 hours. c. Recent, serious GI bleeding. d. Obstetric delivery,
Which is true of warfarin? a. Side effects include increased risk of clotting. b. Therapy may take multiple days of dosing to become therapeutic. c. It works by inhibiting activation of factor X. d. It is only administered IV.

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Focus On Nursing Pharmacology 8th Edition Amy M. Karch - Solutions

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