Questions and Answers of Focus On Nursing Pharmacology

A patient taking a behind-the-counter cold medication and a behind the-counter allergy medicine is found to be taking double doses of pseudoephedrine. As a result, the patient might exhibit a.
A woman develops ova, or eggs, a. Continually until menopause. b. During fetal life. c. Until menopause. d. Starting with puberty.
A group of students are reviewing material in preparation for an examination on the sex hormones. If identified by the students as effects of testosterone, which demonstrate understanding of the
Control of the female sex hormones starts with the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus. Because of this, the cycling of these hormones may be influenced by a. Body temperature. b. Stress
The rhythm method of birth control depends on the effects of progesterone. a. To increase uterine motility. b. To decrease and thicken cervical secretions. c. To elevate body
The menstrual cycle a. Always repeats itself every 28 days. b. Is associated with changing hormone levels. c. Is necessary for a human sexual response. d. Cannot occur if
In the male reproductive system, a. The seminiferous tubules produce sperm and testosterone. b. The interstitial cells produce sperm. c. The seminiferous tubules produce sperm and the
Spring fever occurs as a result of increased light. In males, this increase in light causes an increase in the production of a. Inhibin. b. Adrenal androgens. c. Estrogen. d.
The human sexual response depends on stimulation of a. The sympathetic nervous system. b. The parasympathetic nervous system. c. The hypothalamic sex drive center. d. Adrenal
A postmenopausal woman is to receive short-term HRT to control her menopausal symptoms. Which adverse effect would the nurse include in the patient teaching about this therapy? a.
Estrogens produce a wide variety of systemic effects. Effects attributed to estrogen include a. Protecting the heart from atherosclerosis. b. Retaining calcium in the bones. c.
An estrogen receptor modulator might be the drug of choice in the treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis in a patient with a family history of breast or uterine cancer. The nurse would instruct the
A client is taking clomiphene after 6 years of inability to conceive a child. The client will need to be informed about which? a. The need for a complete physical and pelvic examination before
Combination estrogens and progestins are commonly used as OCs. It is thought that this combination has its effect by.a. Acting to block the release of FSH and LH, preventing follicle
A client is receiving an oxytocic drug to stimulate labor. The nursing care of this client would include which? a. Monitoring of fetal heart rate during labor b. Regulation of drug delivery
Any patient who is taking estrogens, progestins, or combination products should be cautioned to avoid smoking because. a. Nicotine increases the metabolism of the hormones, making them less
Oxytocin, a synthetic form of the hypothalamic hormone, is used to.a. Induce abortion via uterine expulsion. b. Stimulate milk letdown in the lactating woman. c. Increase fertility and the
The use of an abortifacient drug is contraindicated in a woman a. Who is 15 weeks pregnant. b. Who is older than 50 years of age. c. Who has a history of four previous cesarean
A young woman chooses OCs because she feels that it is not the right time for her to get pregnant. You would evaluate her teaching about the drug to be effective if she makes which statement? a.
Testosterone is approved for use in a. The treatment of breast cancers. b. Increasing muscle strength in athletes. c. Oral contraceptives. d. Increasing hair distribution in male
In assessing a client for androgenic effects, you would expect to find which conditions? a. Hirsutism b. Deepening of the voice c. Testicular enlargement d. Acne e. Elevated
Illegal use of large quantities of unprescribed anabolic steroids to enhance athletic performance has been associated with a. Increased sexual prowess. b. Muscle rupture from
A child treated with anabolic steroids because of anemia associated with renal disease will need.a. Early sex education classes because of the effects of the drug. b. X-rays of the long bones
Anabolic steroids would be indicated for the treatment of a. Hair loss. b. Angioedema. c. Debilitation and severe weight loss. d. Breast cancers in males.
What cause of erectile penile dysfunction is treated with PDE5 inhibitors? a. Problems with childhood authority figures prevent a male erection. b. The corpus cavernosum does not fill with
A potentially deadly drug–drug interaction can occur if a PDE5 inhibitor (sildenafil, avanafil, tadalafil, or vardenafil) is combined with a. Corticosteroids. b. Oral
A female may be prescribed an androgen for which diagnosis?a. Breast cancer b. Infertility c. Pain during intercourse d. Females are never prescribed androgens.
Men taking alprostadil for treatment of erectile dysfunction must a. Take the drug orally about 1 hour before anticipated intercourse. b. Arrange for sexual stimulation to promote
Viagra is known to a. Cause unexpected and enlarged erections. b. Make a person young and agile. c. Promote interpersonal relationships between partners. d. Increase nitrous oxide
When describing heart valves to a group of students, would the instructor include? a. The closing of the AV valves is what is solely responsible for heart sounds. b. Small muscles attached
During diastole, which would occur? a. Opening of the AV valves b. Relaxation of the myocardial muscle c. Flow of blood from the atria to the ventricles d. Contraction of the
In the heart, a. The ventricles will not contract unless they are stimulated by action potentials arising from the SA node. b. Fibrillation of the atria will cause blood pressure to fall to
The sympathetic nervous system would be expected to have which effects? a. Stimulates the heart to beat faster b. Speeds conduction through the AV node c. Causes the heart muscle to
The activity of the heart depends on both the inherent properties of the cardiac muscle cells and the activity of the autonomic nerves to the heart. Therefore, a. Cutting all of the autonomic
A heart transplantation patient has no nerve connections to the transplanted heart. In such an individual, one would expect to find a. A slower-than-normal resting heart rate. b. Atria that
Which is correct regarding the cardiac cycle? a. Blood that has a high amount of oxygen enters the left atrium. b. Blood that has a high amount of oxygen enters the right ventricle. c.
Cardiac cells differ from skeletal muscle cells in that a. They contain actin and myosin. b. They possess automaticity and conductivity. c. Calcium must be present for muscle
Clinically, dysrhythmias, or arrhythmias, may cause a. Altered cardiac output that could affect all cells. b. Changes in capillary filling pressures. c. Alterations in osmotic
A client is brought to the emergency room with a suspected myocardial infarction. The client is upset because he had just had an ECG in his doctor’s office and it was fine. The explanation of this
Blood flow to the myocardium differs from blood flow to the rest of the cells of the body in that a. Blood perfuses the myocardium during systole. b. Blood flow is determined by many local
Baroreceptors are the most important factor in controlling fast changes in BP. Baroreceptors a. Are evenly distributed throughout the body to maintain pressure in the system. b. Sense
Pressure within the vascular system is determined by which? a. Peripheral resistance b. Stroke volume c. Sodium load d. Heart rate e. Total intravascular volume f. Rate
Essential hypertension is the most commonly diagnosed form of high BP. Essential hypertension is a. Caused by a tumor in the adrenal gland. b. Associated with no known cause. c.
The renin–angiotensin system is associated with which? a. Intense vasoconstriction and BP elevation b. Blood flow through the kidneys c. Production of surfactant in the lungs d.
Hypertension is associated with a. Loss of vision. b. Strokes. c. Atherosclerosis. d. All of the above.
The stepped-care approach to the treatment of hypertension includes a. Lifestyle modification, including exercise, diet, and decreased smoking and alcohol intake. b. Use of a diuretic,
ACE inhibitors work on the renin–angiotensin system to prevent the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Because this blocking occurs in the cells in the lung, which is usually the site of
A client taking an ACE inhibitor is scheduled for surgery. Because this medication may be dangerous in the setting of general anesthesia, the nurse should a. Stop the drug without discussing
A patient who is hypertensive becomes pregnant. Which is the safest medication for this patient? a. An angiotensin II receptor blocker b. An ACE inhibitor c. A beta-blocker d. A
Droxidopa, an antihypotensive drug, should be used a. Only with patients who are confined to bed. b. In the treatment of acute shock. c. In patients with known
A nurse assessing a patient with HF would expect to find a. Cardiac arrest. b. Congestion of blood vessels. c. An MI. d. A pulmonary embolism.
HF occurs when the heart fails to pump effectively. Which could cause HF? a. Coronary artery disease b. Chronic hypertension c. Cardiomyopathy d. Fluid overload e. Pneumonia
Calcium is needed in the cardiac muscle a. To break apart actin–myosin bridges. b. To activate troponin. c. To promote contraction via sliding. d. To maintain the electrical
A client develops left-sided HF after an MI. Which would the nurse expect to find during the client assessment? a. Orthopnea b. Polyuria c. Tachypnea d. Dyspnea e.
When assessing a patient with right-sided HF, the nurse would expect to find edema a. In gravity-dependent areas. b. In the hands and fingers. c. Around the eyes. d. When the
ACE inhibitors and other vasodilators are used in the early treatment of HF. They act to a. Decrease workload on the heart by lowering preload and afterload. b. Increase arterial pressure
A nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed cardiac glycoside to a patient based on the understanding that this group of drugs acts in which way? a. They block the sympathetic nervous
A nurse would instruct a patient taking Lanoxin (digoxin) for the treatment of HF to take which action? a. Make up any missed doses the next day. b. Report changes in heart rate. c.
A nurse is about to administer Lanoxin to a patient whose apical pulse is 48 beats/min. He or she should a. Administer the drug and notify the prescriber that the heart rate is low. b.
How does ivabradine (Corlanor) work in the body? a. Blocks beta-receptors to slow the heart rate b. Slows influx of calcium to decrease force of contraction c. Slows influx of calcium
Cardiac contraction and relaxation are controlled by a. A specific area in the brain. b. The sympathetic nervous system. c. The autonomic nervous system. d. Action potential and
The conduction system of the heart includes which structures? a. The SA node b. The sinuses of Valsalva c. The atrial bundles d. The Purkinje fibers e. The coronary
Antiarrhythmic drugs alter the action potential of the cardiac cells. Because they alter the action potential, antiarrhythmic drugs often a. Cause HF. b. Alter blood flow to the
Arrhythmias or dysrhythmias can be caused by which situations? a. Lack of oxygen to the heart muscle cells. b. Acidosis near a cell. c. Structural damage in the conduction pathway
Lidocaine is a class Ib antiarrhythmic. Which is correct regarding its mechanism of action? a. It primarily blocks potassium influx. b. It primarily blocks beta receptors. c. It
Ibutilide (Corvert) is a class III antiarrhythmic drug that is used for.a. Sedation during electrocardioversion. b. Conversion of recent-onset AF and flutter. c. Treatment of
The drug of choice for the treatment of a supraventricular tachycardia associated with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is a. Digoxin. b. Verapamil. c. Lidocaine. d. Adenosine.
A patient who is receiving an antiarrhythmic drug needs a. Constant cardiac monitoring until stabilized. b. Frequent blood tests, including drug levels. c. An antidepressant to deal
A client stabilized on quinidine for the regulation of AF would be cautioned to avoid which foods? a. Potassium-rich foods b. Foods containing tyrosine c. High-sodium–containing
A patient is brought into the emergency room with a potentially life-threatening ventricular arrhythmia. Immediate treatment might include a. A loading dose of digoxin. b. Injection of
Coronary artery disease results in a. An imbalance in cardiac muscle oxygen supply and demand. b. Delivery of blood to the heart muscle during systole. c. Increased pulse
Treating angina involves modifying factors that could decrease myocardial oxygen consumption. It could be expected that this might include a. Weight loss. b. Use of nitrates. c. Use of
Angina a. Causes death of heart muscle cells. b. Is pain due to lack of oxygen to myocardial cells. c. Cannot occur at rest.d. Is not treatable.
An acute myocardial infarction is usually associated with which conditions? a. Permanent injury to the heart muscle b. Potentially serious arrhythmias c. Pain. d. The development
Nitrates are commonly used antianginal drugs that act to a. Increase the preload on the heart. b. Increase the afterload on the heart. c. Dilate coronary vessels to increase the
When describing the action of antianginal drugs to a patient, which would the nurse include? a. Decrease the workload on the heart b. Increase the supply of oxygen to the heart c.
Calcium channel blockers are effective in treating angina because they a. Prevent any CV exercise, preventing strain on the heart. b. Block strong muscle contractions, causing
A client who has nitroglycerin to avert an acute anginal attack would need to be taught. a. To take five or six tablets and then seek medical help if no relief occurs. b. To buy the tablets
A nurse would question an order for which drug if the patient was also receiving verapamil? a. Oral contraceptives b. Cyclosporine c. Digoxin d. Barbiturate anesthetics
Prinzmetal angina occurs as a result of a. Electrolyte imbalance. b. A spasm of a coronary vessel. c. Decreased venous return to the heart. d. A ventricular arrhythmia.
Which way that the body uses cholesterol stated by a community group indicates that the group has understood teaching about cholesterol? a. The production of water-soluble vitamins b. The
A bile acid sequestrant is the drug of choice for a client who has which conditions? a. A high LDL concentration b. A high triglyceride concentration c. Biliary obstruction d.
The formation of atheromas in blood vessels precedes the signs and symptoms of.a. Hepatitis. b. CAD. c. Diabetes mellitus. d. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Teaching a client who is prescribed an HMG–CoA reductase inhibitor to treat high cholesterol and high lipid levels should include which information? a. The importance of exercise. b. The
Hyperlipidemia is considered to be a. A normal finding in adult males. b. Related to stress levels. c. A treatable CAD risk factor. d. A side effect of cigarette smoking.
The bile acid sequestrants a. Are absorbed into the liver. b. Take several weeks to show an effect. c. Have no associated adverse effects. d. Prevent bile salts from being
Which would the nurse include when teaching a patient about HMG–CoA reductase inhibitors?a. The patient will not have a heart attack. b. The patient will not develop CAD. c. The patient
HMG–CoA reductase inhibitors work in the a. Process of bile secretion. b. Process of cholesterol formation in the cell. c. Intestinal wall to block fat absorption. d. Kidney to
Which would the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe for a patient who has high lipid levels and cannot take fibrates or HMG–CoA reductase inhibitors? a. Nicotine b. Vitamin
Which would alert the nurse to suspect that a patient receiving HMG–CoA reductase inhibitors is developing rhabdomyolysis?a. Flatulence and abdominal bloating b. Increased bleeding and
Blood coagulation is a complex reaction that involves a. Vasoconstriction, platelet aggregation, and plasminogen action. b. Vasodilation, platelet aggregation, and activation of the
Hageman factor is known to activate which? a. The clotting cascade b. The anticlotting process c. The inflammatory response d. Platelet aggregation e. Thromboxane A2 f.
Warfarin, an oral anticoagulant, acts a. To directly prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. b. To decrease the production of vitamin K clotting factors in the liver. c. As
Plasminogen is converted to plasmin, a clot-dissolving substance, by which? a. Nicotine b. Hageman factor c. Tenecteplase d. Pyrogens e. Thrombin f. Christmas factor.
Heparin reacts to prevent the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin. Heparin. a. Is available in oral and parenteral forms. b. Takes about 72 hours to have a therapeutic effect. c. Has
Antiplatelet drugs block the aggregation of platelets and keep vessels open. These drugs would be useful in which circumstances? a. Maintaining the patency of grafts b. Decreasing the risk
The low-molecular-weight heparin of choice for preventing DVT after hip replacement therapy is a. Heparin. b. Betrixaban. c. Fondaparinux. d. Enoxaparin.
Evaluating a client who is taking an anticoagulant for blood loss would usually include assessing for which conditions? a. The presence of petechiae b. Bleeding gums while brushing the
A thrombolytic agent would be most indicated for which circumstance?a. CVA within the last 2 months. b. Acute MI within the last 3 hours. c. Recent, serious GI bleeding. d. Obstetric
Which is true of warfarin? a. Side effects include increased risk of clotting. b. Therapy may take multiple days of dosing to become therapeutic. c. It works by inhibiting activation

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