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focus on nursing pharmacology
Questions and Answers of
Focus On Nursing Pharmacology
Anticholinergic drugs are effective in early Parkinson disease. They act to a. Block stimulating effects of acetylcholine in the brain to bring activity back into balance. b. Block the
A patient receiving an anticholinergic drug for Parkinson disease is planning a winter trip to Tahiti. The temperature in Tahiti is 70 degrees warmer than at home. What precautions should the patient
A patient taking levodopa and over-the-counter megavitamins might experience. a. A cure from Parkinson disease. b. The return of Parkinson symptoms. c. Improved health and
Spasmolytics, or centrally acting muscle relaxants, block the reflexes in the CNS that lead to spasm. While a patient is taking one of these drugs, which interventions should be implemented? a.
Muscle spasticity is the result of a. Direct damage to a muscle cell. b. Overstretching of a muscle. c. Tearing of a ligament. d. Damage to neurons within the CNS.
A patient who has been diagnosed with Parkinson disease for many years and whose symptoms were controlled using Sinemet has started to exhibit increasing signs of the disease. Possible treatment
A muscle spasm often results from a. Damage to the basal ganglia. b. CNS damage. c. Injury to the musculoskeletal system. d. Chemical imbalance within the CNS.
Muscle relaxants would be used in which circumstances? a. To treat spasticity related to spinal cord injury.b. To treat spasticity that contributes to locomotion, upright position, or increase
Signs and symptoms of tetanus, which include severe muscle spasm, are best treated with a. Baclofen. b. Diazepam.c. Carisoprodol. d. Methocarbamol.
The drug of choice for a patient experiencing severe muscle spasms and pain precipitated by anxiety is. a. Methocarbamol. b. Baclofen. c. Diazepam. d. Carisoprodol.
Dantrolene (Dantrium) differs from the other skeletal muscle relaxants because. a. It acts in the highest levels of the CNS. b. It is used to treat muscle spasms as well as muscle
The use of neuromuscular junction blockers may sometimes cause a condition known as malignant hyperthermia. The drug of choice for prevention or treatment of this condition is a.
Dantrolene is associated with potentially fatal cellular damage. If your patient’s condition is being managed with dantrolene, the patient should a. Have repeated complete blood counts during
According to the gate control theory, pain.a. Is caused by gates in the CNS. b. Can be blocked or intensified by gates in the CNS. c. Is caused by gates in peripheral nerve sensors. d.
Narcotics are drugs that react with opioid receptors throughout the body. Which conditions would the nurse expect to find when assessing a patient who was taking a narcotic? a. Hypnosis b.
Opioid receptors are found throughout the body a. Only in people who have become addicted to opiates. b. In increasing numbers with chronic pain conditions. c. To incorporate pain
The nurse would expect to administer a narcotic as the analgesic of choice for which patients? a. A patient with severe postoperative pain. b. A patient with severe chronic obstructive
Most narcotics are controlled substances because they. a. Are very expensive.b. Can cause respiratory depression. c. Can be addictive. d. Can be used only in a hospital setting.
Injecting a narcotic into an area of the body that is chilled can be dangerous because a. An abscess will form. b. The injection will be very painful. c. An excessive amount may be
Proper administration of an ordered narcotic a. Can lead to addiction. b. Should be done promptly to prevent increased pain and the need for larger doses. c. Would include holding the
Migraine headaches. a. Occur during sleep and involve sweating and eye pain. b. Occur with stress and feel like a dull band around the entire head. c. Often occur when drinking
The triptans are a class of drugs that bind to selective serotonin receptor sites and cause.a. Cranial vascular dilation. b. Cranial vascular constriction. c. Clinical depression. d.
The only triptan that has been approved for use in treating cluster headaches as well as migraines is.a. Naratriptan. b. Rizatriptan. c. Sumatriptan.d. Zolmitriptan.
The most dangerous period for many patients undergoing general anesthesia is during which stage? a. Stage 1, when communication becomes difficult b. Stage 2, when systemic stimulation
Balanced anesthesia combines different classes of drugs to achieve the best effects with the fewest adverse effects. Balanced anesthesia usually involves the use of which types of drugs? a.
While a patient is receiving a general anesthetic, he or she must be continually monitored because.a. The patient has no pain sensation. b. Generalized CNS depression affects all body
Which comfort measures are important for a patient receiving a local anesthetic?a. Skin care and turning b. Reassurance over loss of control and sensation c. Use of antihypertensive
Recovery after a general anesthetic refers to the period of time a. from the beginning of anesthesia until the patient is ready for surgery. b. during the surgery when anesthesia is
A nurse would anticipate the use of general anesthetics for which reasons? a. To produce analgesia b. To produce amnesia c. To activate the reticular activating system d. To block
The nursing instructor determines that teaching about general anesthetics was successful when the students identify which person as being most qualified to administer general anesthetics? a.
Local anesthetics are used to block feeling in specific body areas. If given in increasing concentrations, local anesthetics can cause loss in the following order: a. Temperature sensation,
Nondepolarizing NMJ blockers a. Antagonize ACh to prevent depolarization of muscle cells. b. Act as agonists of ACh, leading to depolarization of muscle cells. c. Prevent the
The nurse would expect administration of an NMJ blocker as the drug of choice to accomplish which actions? a. Facilitate endotracheal intubation.b. Facilitate mechanical ventilation. c.
Curare is used as a poison on arrow tips in some cultures. Curare.a. Is a depolarizing NMJ blocker. b. Causes muscle paralysis in the brain. c. Is not affected by cooking. d. Has no
Succinylcholine has a more rapid onset of action and a shorter duration of activity than the nondepolarizing NMJ blockers because it.a. Does not bind well to receptor sites. b. Rapidly crosses
When planning the care of a patient who is to receive an NMJ blocker, the nurse would expect which about the patient? a. Transfer to an intensive care unit would be essential. b. Intubation
Malignant hyperthermia can occur with any NMJ blocker, but it most often occurs with succinylcholine. The nurse would expect to see which drug ordered? a. Phenobarbital b.
Patient recovery from an NMJ blocker. a. Is predictable based on the drug given. b. Can be affected by genetic enzyme deficiency. c. Can always be ensured because of the drug
When preparing NMJ blockers for administration, it is important that they.a. Are not mixed in with any alkaline solutions. b. Are not exposed to light. c. Are not mixed with any other
When describing the functions of the ANS, which would the instructor include? a. Maintenance of balance and posture b. Maintenance of the special senses c. Regulation of integrated
The SNS a. Is called the thoracolumbar system. b. Is called the fight-or-flight system. c. Is called the craniosacral system. d. Uses ACh as its sole neurotransmitter. e.
The ANS differs from other systems in the CNS in that it a. Uses only peripheral pathways. b. Affects organs and muscles via a two-neuron system. c. Uses a unique one-neuron
The sympathetic system uses catecholamines at the postganglionic receptors. Which are considered catecholamines? a. Dopamine b. Norepinephrine c. ACh d. Epinephrine e.
The nurse determines that the beta2-receptors in the SNS have been stimulated by which finding? a. Increased heart rate b. Increased myocardial contraction c. Bronchial
If you suspect that a person is very stressed and is experiencing a sympathetic stress reaction, you would expect to find a. Increased bowel sounds and urinary output. b. Constricted pupils
Once a postganglionic receptor site has been stimulated, the neurotransmitter must be broken down immediately. The sympathetic system breaks down postganglionic neurotransmitters by using.a. Liver
The parasympathetic nervous system, in most situations, opposes the actions of the SNS, allowing the ANS to a. Generally have no effect. b. Maintain a fine control over internal
Isoproterenol is a nonspecific beta-agonist. The nurse might expect to administer this drug for which condition? a. Preterm labor b. Bronchospasm c. Cardiac standstill d.
Cholinergic neurons, those using ACh as their neurotransmitter, would be least likely to be found in a. Motor nerves on skeletal muscles. b. Preganglionic nerves in the sympathetic and
The instructor determines that teaching about adrenergic drugs has been successful when the class identifies the drugs as also being called. a. Sympatholytic agents. b. Cholinergic
Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system would cause.a. Slower heart rate and increased GI secretions. b. Faster heart rate and urinary retention. c. Vasoconstriction and bronchial
The adrenergic agent of choice for treating the signs and symptoms of allergic rhinitis is. a. Norepinephrine. b. Phenylephrine. c. Dobutamine. d. Dopamine.
A nurse would question the order for an adrenergic agonist for a patient who is also receiving which of the following? a. Anticholinergic drugs b. Halogenated hydrocarbon
An adrenergic agent being used to treat shock infiltrates into the tissue with IV administration. Which action by the nurse would be most appropriate? a. Watch the area for any signs of
Phenylephrine, an alpha-specific agonist, is found in many cold and allergy preparations. The nurse instructs the patient to be alert for which adverse effects? a. Urinary retention and pupil
Adverse effects associated with adrenergic agonists are related to the generalized stimulation of the SNS and could include. a. Slowed heart rate. b. Constriction of the pupils. c.
A patient has elected to take an OTC cold preparation that contains phenylephrine. The nurse would advise the patient not to take that drug if the patient has a. Thyroid or CV disease. b. A
Adrenergic blocking drugs, because of their clinical effects, are also known as.a. Anticholinergics. b. Sympathomimetics. c. Parasympatholytics. d. Sympatholytics.
A nurse would question an order for a beta-adrenergic blocker if the patient was also receiving what other drugs? a. Clonidine b. Ergot alkaloids c. Aspirin d. NSAIDs e.
The nurse would anticipate administering drugs that generally block all adrenergic receptor sites to treat. a. Allergic rhinitis. b. COPD. c. Cardiac-related conditions. d.
You would caution a patient who is taking an adrenergic blocker.a. To avoid exposure to infection. b. To stop the drug if he or she experiences flu-like symptoms. c. That it can be
The beta-blocker of choice for a patient who is hypertensive and has angina is.a. Nadolol. b. Propranolol. c. Timolol. d. Carteolol.
Phentolamine (Regitine), an alpha-adrenergic blocker, is most frequently used. a. To prevent cell death after extravasation of intravenous dopamine or norepinephrine. b. To treat COPD in
The beta-adrenergic blocker propranolol is approved for a wide variety of uses. Which of the following are approved indications? a. Migraine headaches b. Stage fright c.
Indirect-acting cholinergic agents a. React with acetylcholine receptor sites on the membranes of effector cells. b. React chemically with acetylcholinesterase to increase acetylcholine
A nurse is explaining myasthenia gravis to a family. Which of the following points would be included in the explanation? a. It is thought to be an autoimmune disease. b. It is associated
A patient is to receive pilocarpine. The nurse understands that this drug would be most likely used to treat which of the following? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Neurogenic bladder c.
A nurse would question an order for a cholinergic drug if the patient was also taking which drugs? a. Theophylline b. NSAIDs c. Cephalosporin d. Atropine e.
Myasthenia gravis is treated with indirect-acting cholinergic agents that a. Lead to accumulation of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft. b. Block the GI effects of the disease, allowing
A patient with myasthenia gravis is no longer able to swallow. Which of the following would the nurse expect the physician to order?a. Rivastigmine b. Memantine c. Pyridostigmine d.
Alzheimer disease is marked by a progressive loss of memory and is associated with a. Degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the basal ganglia. b. Loss of acetylcholine-producing
The nurse would expect to administer donepezil to a patient with Alzheimer disease who a. Cannot remember family members’ names. b. Is mildly inhibited and can still follow medical dosing
Adverse effects associated with the use of cholinergic drugs include a. Constipation and insomnia. b. Diarrhea and urinary urgency. c. Tachycardia and hypertension. d. Dry mouth
Nerve gas is an irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor that can cause muscle paralysis and death. An antidote to such an agent is.a. Atropine. b. Propranolol. c. Pralidoxime. d.
Anticholinergic drugs are used. a. To allow the sympathetic system to become more dominant. b. To block the parasympathetic system, which is commonly hyperactive. c. As the drugs of
Which of the following best describes aldosterone? a. It causes the loss of sodium and water from the renal tubules. b. It is under direct hormonal control from the hypothalamus. c. It
Atropine and scopolamine work by blocking.a. Nicotinic receptors only. b. Muscarinic and nicotinic receptors. c. Muscarinic receptors only. d. Adrenergic receptors to allow cholinergic
Which of the following would the nurse be least likely to include when developing a teaching plan for a patient who is receiving an anticholinergic agent? a. Encouraging the patient to void
Which of the following suggestions would the nurse make to help a patient who is receiving an anticholinergic agent reduce the risks associated with decreased sweating? a. Covering the head and
Hormones exert their influence on human cells by influencing which of the following? a. Enzyme-controlled reactions b. Messenger RNA c. Lysosome activity d. Transcription
When explaining the role of ADH to a group of students, which fact would the instructor include? a. It is produced by the anterior pituitary. b. It causes the retention of water by the
The specific criteria that define a hormone would include which of the following? a. It is produced in small amounts. b. It is secreted directly into the bloodstream. c. It is slowly
The endocrine glands. a. Form part of the communication system of the body. b. Cannot be stimulated by hormones circulating in the blood. c. Cannot be viewed as integrating centers of
Some endocrine glands do not respond to the HPA. These glands include the. a. Thyroid gland. b. Ovaries. c. Parathyroid glands. d. Adrenal cortex. e. Endocrine
The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.a. Secretes a number of stimulating hormones. b. Produces endorphins to modulate pain perception. c. Has no function that has yet been
After teaching a group of students about the negative feedback system, identification of which of the following as an example would indicate that the students have understood the teaching?a. Growth
Internal body homeostasis and communication are regulated by.a. The cardiovascular and respiratory systems. b. The nervous and cardiovascular systems. c. The endocrine and nervous
Hypothalamic hormones are normally present in small amounts. When used therapeutically, their main indication is. a. Diagnosis of endocrine disorders and treatment of specific cancers. b.
Octreotide (Sandostatin) would be the drug of choice in the treatment of acromegaly in a client with which factors? a. Diabetes b. Gallbladder disease c. Adrenal insufficiency d.
Somatropin (Nutropin and others) is a genetically engineered GH that is used a. To diagnose hypothalamic failure. b. To treat precocious puberty. c. In the treatment of children with
A father brought his 15-year-old son to the endocrine clinic because the boy was only 5 ft tall. He wanted his son to receive GH therapy because short stature would be a detriment to his success as
GH deficiencies a. Occur only in children.b. Always result in dwarfism. c. Are treated only in children because GH is usually produced only until puberty. d. Can occur in adults as
Patients who are receiving GH replacement therapy must be monitored closely. Routine follow-up examinations would include.a. A bowel program to deal with constipation. b. Tests of thyroid
Acromegaly and gigantism are both conditions related to excessive secretion of. a. Thyroid hormone. b. Melanin-stimulating hormone. c. Growth hormone. d. Oxytocin.
Diabetes insipidus is a relatively rare disease characterized by. a. Excessive secretion of ADH. b. Renal damage. c. The production of large amounts of dilute urine containing no
Treatment with ADH preparations is associated with adverse effects, including a. Constipation and paralytic ileus. b. Cholecystitis and bile obstruction. c. Nocturia and
A patient who is receiving an ADH preparation for diabetes insipidus may need instruction in administering the drug.a. PO or IM. b. PO or intranasally. c. PR or PO. d. Intranasally or
Adrenocortical agents are widely used a. To cure chronic inflammatory disorders. b. For short-term treatment to relieve inflammation. c. For long-term treatment of chronic
Patients who are taking corticosteroids would be expected to report which findings? a. Weight gain b. Round or “moon face” appearance c. Feeling of well-being d. Weight
If a nurse was asked to explain the adrenal medulla to a patient, it would be appropriate for him or her to tell that patient that it. a. Is the outer core of the adrenal gland. b. Is the
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